Sign up to unlock more features
- Save this deck to your account
- Study flashcards with spaced repetition
- Export to Anki (.apkg) or PDF
- Process documents up to 100 pages
- Images extracted from PDFs and documents
- Better text extraction from your PDFs and documents
- Better flashcards with our more advanced AI model
What are the three pillars of public health?
Health Protection, Health Promotion, Health Prevention
Health Management, Health Awareness, Health Research
Health Education, Health Regulation, Health Safety
Health Control, Health Support, Health Services
What does primary prevention aim to do?
Prevent illness or injury before it occurs
Rehabilitate patients post-illness
Manage existing diseases
Screen for early illness
Which of the following is a secondary prevention strategy?
Rehabilitation services
Identifying high risk populations and treating modifiable risk factors
Promoting healthy lifestyles
Immunization programs
What is involved in tertiary prevention?
Promoting healthy lifestyle choices
Mitigating the impact of diseases already present
Screening for early symptoms
Preventing diseases before they occur
Which tool is used for assessing risk of diabetes?
Cervical Cancer Screening
AUSDRISK Diabetic Risk Assessment
Colorectal Cancer Screening
Australian CVD Risk Assessment
What are non-modifiable risk factors for colorectal cancer?
Physical inactivity, diet, diabetes
Smoking, alcohol, obesity
Family history, age > 50, history of polyps
High blood pressure, cholesterol, age < 50
What is the purpose of screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
To detect AAA in high-risk populations
To treat existing AAA
To prevent AAA from occurring
To assess overall cardiovascular health
What is the recommended screening for cervical cancer?
Pap smears for women over age 25 every 5 years
CT scans for women over age 30
Annual mammograms for all women
Blood tests for HPV every year
What symptoms are associated with cervical cancer?
Persistent cough, chest pain, weight loss
Fatigue, fever, muscle aches
Dysuria, increased urinary frequency, vaginal discharge
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
What is the recommended screening for breast cancer in women under 40 years old?
Biannual ultrasound screening
Monthly self-exams
Annual mammogram screening
No screening recommended
What is the main limitation of serum Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) testing?
No correlation with cancer
Low sensitivity
Invasive procedure
High rate of false positives
What is the formula for calculating sensitivity?
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TN}{TN + FP} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{FP}{TP + TN} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TP}{TP + FN} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TP + FN}{TP} \)
What does a high Positive Predictive Value (PPV) indicate?
Low risk of disease
High probability of having the disease when tested positive
Unreliable test results
High chance of false negatives
What is the definition of Relative Risk (RR)?
Comparison of risk between exposed and unexposed individuals
Difference in disease rates
Likelihood of false positives
Probability of disease occurrence
What type of study can use Odds Ratio (OR)?
Cohort or case-control studies
Longitudinal studies
Cross-sectional studies
Randomized controlled trials
What is the definition of Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)?
Percentage of population affected
Difference in risk of disease with and without intervention
Total risk of disease
Ratio of exposed to unexposed
What is the purpose of the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)?
To identify the most effective treatment
To determine how many patients need treatment for one positive outcome
To calculate the total cost of treatment
To estimate the average recovery time
What is the classification of primary homelessness?
Living with family
Without conventional accommodation
Substandard accommodation
Temporary shelter
What is the active ingredient in heroin?
Diacetylmorphine
Oxycodone
Methadone
Fentanyl
What is a common effect of methamphetamine use?
Euphoria followed by depression
Sedation
Increased CNS activity
Decreased heart rate
What is a common name for methamphetamine?
E
Speed
G
Coke
What is the onset of action for meth when smoked or injected?
4-6 hours
1-2 minutes
20 minutes
2-8 minutes
What are the potential effects of cocaine?
Drowsiness and sedation
Happiness and confidence
Euphoria and relaxation
Memory enhancement
What is a common name for cocaine?
E
G
Speed
Coke
What is the onset of action for cocaine when snorted?
2-8 minutes
1-3 minutes
4-6 hours
20 minutes
What is the active component in cannabis?
THC
GHB
MDMA
Cocaine
What is a common name for ecstasy?
G
Coke
E
Speed
What is the onset of action for ecstasy when taken orally?
1-2 minutes
4-6 hours
20 minutes - 1 hour
2-8 minutes
What is a common effect of GHB?
Euphoria
Drowsiness
Increased appetite
Confusion
What is a naturally occurring opioid?
Morphine
Fentanyl
Heroin
Oxycodone
What is a treatment option for opioid withdrawal?
Methadone
Disulfiram
Topiramate
Naltrexone
What is the purpose of disulfiram in alcohol addiction treatment?
Enhances NMDA receptors
Increases dopamine
Blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase
Activates opioid receptors
What is one of the 5As in addiction history and assessment?
Ask
Arrange
Advise
Assist
What is Naltrexone used for in withdrawal management?
Benzodiazepine
Nicotine replacement
Opioid receptor antagonist
NMDA receptor antagonist
What type of receptor does Varenicline act as a partial agonist at?
Dopamine receptors
GABA receptors
Opioid receptors
Nicotinic receptors
What is the antidote for Paracetamol poisoning?
Flumazenil
Naloxone
Deferoxamine
Acetylcysteine
What is a common symptom of mesotheliomas?
Joint pain
Lung fibrosis
Malignant neoplasm of pleura
Skin lesions
What type of reaction is Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?
Autoimmune reaction
Type 3/4 hypersensitivity reaction
Delayed hypersensitivity
Type 1 hypersensitivity
What is the median survival for Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis without a lung transplant?
3-5 years
10 years
1-2 years
5-7 years
What is the most common species of Plasmodium causing malaria?
P. ovale
P. malariae
P. falciparum
P. vivax
What is the primary cause of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
Viral infection
Chemical fumes/vapours
Allergic reaction
Bacterial infection
Which investigation is used for screening malaria?
HRP2 tests
Thin Blood films
FBC
Thick Blood films
What type of blood film is used for screening in malaria investigations?
Thin Blood films
FBC
Thick Blood films
Stool specimen
What shape are the gametocytes of malaria parasites?
Spindle shaped
Rod shaped
Round
Banana shaped
What is a symptom of malaria?
Cough
Rash
Splenomegaly
Headache
What is the treatment for P. falciparum malaria?
Artemisinin
Single dose of primaquine
Chloroquine
Quinine
Which virus is endemic in Northern Queensland?
Chikungunya
Dengue
Zika
Ross River Virus
What is the incubation period for Dengue?
3-7 days
Up to 14 days
15-20 days
1-2 weeks
What is the main transmission route for Giardiasis?
Airborne
Oral-faecal
Vector-borne
Blood transfusion
What is the treatment for symptomatic Giardiasis?
Azithromycin
Tinidazole or Metronidazole
Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin
What is a common symptom of Cryptosporidiosis?
Watery diarrhoea
Constipation
Fever
Nausea
What is the mechanism of action for Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Inhibit serotonin reuptake
Increase dopamine production
Inhibit MAO-A and B
Block adrenergic receptors
Which is a side effect of SSRIs?
Weight loss
Dry mouth
Increased appetite
Nausea
What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine in depression?
Acts on glutamate
Inhibits serotonin
Enhances dopamine
Blocks norepinephrine
What condition is characterized by periods of mania or hypomania?
Anxiety Disorder
Major Depression
Schizophrenia
Bipolar Disorder
What is the treatment for Bipolar Disorder?
Lithium
Sertraline
Quetiapine
Fluoxetine
What is the main mood stabilizer used in treatment due to its cost and ease of use?
Carbamazepine
Olanzapine
Lithium
Valproate
What is one of the adverse effects of Lithium?
Increased appetite
Insomnia
Weight gain
Decreased thyroid function
What is the first-line treatment for Panic Disorder?
MAOI
SSRIs
Benzodiazepines
TCAs
Which drug enhances response to GABA?
Buspirone
Antipsychotics
SSRIs
Benzodiazepines
What type of symptoms are characterized by delusions and hallucinations in schizophrenia?
Positive symptoms
Negative symptoms
Cognitive symptoms
Disorganized symptoms
What is a common pathology found in schizophrenia?
Increased brain volume
Enlarged ventricles
Decreased blood flow
Thickened cortex
What type of drugs are dopamine antagonists used to treat schizophrenia?
Anxiolytics
Antidepressants
Antipsychotic drugs
Mood stabilizers
What is a potential side effect of typical antipsychotic drugs?
Enhanced memory
Increased libido
Tardive dyskinesia
Weight loss
What is the mechanism of action for benzodiazepines?
Block serotonin receptors
Enhance response to GABA
Inhibit norepinephrine release
Increase dopamine levels
What is a common side effect of buspirone?
Dizziness
Hallucinations
Euphoria
Increased appetite
What is a common effect of dopamine antagonists in the tuberohypophyseal pathway?
Increased prolactin levels
Decreased dopamine levels
Increased serotonin levels
Decreased prolactin levels
Which type of dermatitis is characterized by an allergic reaction?
Allergic contact dermatitis
Seborrheic dermatitis
Irritant contact dermatitis
Atopic eczema
What is the primary treatment for mild cellulitis caused by Staph.aureus?
IV vancomycin
Clindamycin (oral)
Dicloxacillin or flucloxacillin (oral)
Topical antibiotics
What is the most common cause of pharyngitis in industrialized countries?
Streptococcus pyogenes
Haemophilus influenzae
Staphylococcus aureus
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
What is a complication of atopic eczema?
Keloids
Secondary infection
Psoriasis
Hyperpigmentation
What does M-protein in Strep.pyogenes help with?
Anti-phagocytosis
Antibiotic resistance
Biofilm formation
Increased virulence
What is a common treatment for recurrent GAS infections to prevent rheumatic fever?
Oral flucloxacillin
Topical corticosteroids
IV clindamycin
Benzathine penicillin (IM) monthly
What is the primary morphology of a rash?
Plaque
Papule
Macule
Nodule
What is commonly used for patch testing in allergic contact dermatitis?
Identify allergens to avoid
Moisturizing agents
Skin hydration
Antibiotic sensitivity
What is the treatment for severe cellulitis caused by Staph.aureus?
Topical antiseptics
IV clindamycin
IV dicloxacillin or flucloxacillin
Oral antibiotics
What is the treatment for scabies in case of allergy to Permethrin?
Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion in water
Fluconazole (oral)
Terbinafine (oral)
Ivermectin (oral)
What is the highest prevalence age group for scabies?
Adults > 30 years old
Elderly > 65 years old
Teenagers 15-19 years old
Children < 15 years old
Which organism causes scabies?
Trichophyton
Microsporum
Sarcoptes scabiei
Epidermophyton
What is a characteristic symptom of Norwegian scabies?
Extensive thickening and crusting of skin
Loss of hair
Itchy rash
Red scaly nodules
What is the causative agent of dermatophyte infections?
Fungi
Parasites
Viruses
Bacteria
What is a common treatment for Tinea corporis?
Benzyl benzoate
Fluconazole
Ivermectin
Terbinafine
What skin layer is primarily responsible for UV protection?
Dermis
Hypodermis
Epidermis
Subcutaneous tissue
What is the most important risk factor for skin cancer?
Chemotherapy
Genetics
Inflammatory conditions
UV radiation
What does Actinic Keratosis appear as?
Thickened pink tumors
Scaly/crusted red patches
Dark brown moles
Smooth white lesions
What is the most common type of skin tumor?
Actinic Keratosis
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma
Basal Cell Carcinoma
What is a hallmark of Squamous Cell Carcinoma histology?
Keratin pearls
Langerhans cells
Basal cell atypia
Loss of ordered maturation
What is the most common skin cancer?
Keratoacanthoma
Seborrheic Keratosis
Melanoma
Basal Cell Carcinoma
What is a key histological feature of Keratoacanthoma?
Symmetrical dome
Blue color
Central Keratin plug
Dysplastic melanocytes
Which syndrome is associated with multiple basal cell carcinomas in individuals under 20?
Cowden syndrome
Gorlin syndrome
Down syndrome
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
What is a characteristic of Dysplastic naevus?
Larger than acquired naevus (>5mm)
Central keratin plug
Flat and waxy
Pearly glistening nodules
What type of melanoma has a radial growth phase?
Lentigo maligna
Superficial spreading
Nodular
Acral/mucosal
Which factor does NOT increase the risk of melanoma?
Family history
Weaker immune system
Dark skin phenotype
Pale skin
What is the histological feature of melanoma?
Enlarged melanocytes forming nests
More keratin
Central keratin plug
Symmetrical dome
What is a clinical sign of concern for melanoma?
Diameter > 6mm
Uniform color
Flat and waxy
Central keratin plug
What is the effect of UV radiation on DNA?
Enhances p53 function
Repairs DNA damage
Causes mutations in the Hedgehog signaling pathway
Increases immune response
What is the typical growth pattern of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Aggressive from the start
Rapid growth
Slow growing, rarely metastasizes
Always metastasizes
What is Seborrheic keratosis characterized by?
Bland proliferation of keratinocytes
Malignant proliferation of keratinocytes
Increased proliferation of melanocytes
Rapid cell division
What does pigmented BCC signify?
Increased keratinocyte activity
Normal cell growth
Malignant proliferation of keratinocytes
Benign proliferation of melanocytes
What is solar lentigo commonly referred to as?
'Age spots'
Freckles
Liver spots
Moles
What is the main characteristic of acquired melanocytic naevi?
Proliferation of keratinocytes
Proliferation of melanocytes
Decreased cell activity
Benign cell growth
What is the benefit of cytopathology in cancer diagnosis?
Invasive and painful
Rapid and cheap
Always accurate
Requires extensive training
What is a key feature of neoplasms?
Regular nuclear outlines
Foamy cytoplasm
Nuclear hypochromasia
Low N:C ratio
What is an incisional biopsy used for?
Breast cancer
Colorectal cancer
Skin lesions
Prostate cancer
What is the advantage of intraoperative diagnostics (frozen section)?
Requires patient involvement
Real-time decision making
Low cost
Always accurate
What are serum tumour markers used for?
Cancer diagnosis in relevant clinical conditions
General health check-ups
Identifying benign growths
Preventing cancer
What does molecular diagnosis of cancer aid in?
Predicting benign conditions
General health assessments
Specific treatment decisions
Routine check-ups
What is a common structure of the thyroid gland?
Circular structure
Three lobes
Single lobe
Two lobes connected by an isthmus
What is the arterial blood supply to the thyroid gland from the external carotid?
Superior Thyroid Artery
Thyroid IMA artery
Inferior Thyroid Artery
Carotid artery
What is the arterial blood supply for the thyroid gland?
Internal jugular→ Inferior Thyroid Artery
Aorta→ Thyroid IMA artery
External carotid→ Superior Thyroid Artery
Subclavian→ Thyrocervical trunk
What is the main hormone produced in large amounts by the thyroid gland?
T3
Calcitonin
Thyroglobulin
T4
What are the signs of hyperthyroidism?
Pallor, muscle weakness, coarse hair
Cold intolerance, hair loss, constipation
Weight gain, fatigue, hoarseness
Tachycardia, weight loss, sweating
What is a common sign of hypothyroidism?
Heat sensitivity
Tachycardia
Exophthalmos
Weight gain
What is Hashimoto's Thyroiditis?
Viral infection causing inflammation
Non-toxic goitre
Thyroid hyperplasia
Autoimmune disease with antibodies against thyroglobulin
What is the most common type of thyroid neoplasia?
Follicular carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
What is a characteristic feature of Grave's disease?
Viral infection
Calcitonin secretion
Thyroiditis
Autoimmune antibodies against TSH receptor
What histological feature is seen in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis?
Diffuse lymphocytic infiltrate
Cystic changes
Calcification
Follicular hyperplasia
What is the treatment for Follicular carcinoma?
Surgery resection or radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Observation
Medication
What is a symptom of thyroid hyperplasia?
Hypotension
Weight loss
Cold intolerance
Goitre
What type of tumor is Medullary thyroid carcinoma associated with?
Anaplastic carcinoma
C-cell tumor
Follicular tumor
Lymphoma
What hormone is secreted by parafollicular cells in Medullary thyroid carcinoma?
Triiodothyronine
TSH
Thyroxine
Calcitonin
What is a common symptom of Graves' Disease?
Cold intolerance
Tremor
Hoarseness
Weight gain
In Graves' Disease, what is expected in thyroid function tests?
Low TSH, high T4/T3
Normal TSH, high T4
Low T4, high TSH
High TSH, low T4/T3
What is a common symptom of hypothyroidism?
Tremor
Lethargy
Palpitations
Anxiety
What condition is characterized by a small, non-tender goitre and increased TSH?
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Graves' Disease
Thyroid adenoma
Nodular goitre
What type of lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells?
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma
What is a common sign of Hodgkin Lymphoma during physical examination?
Enlarged lymph nodes
Cold intolerance
Puffy face
Dry voice
What is the term for the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in the skin due to hypothyroidism?
Xanthelasma
Myxedema
Lymphadenopathy
Edema
What is the expected TSH level in a patient with primary hypothyroidism?
Variable TSH
Decreased TSH
Increased TSH
Normal TSH
What type of lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells?
T-cell Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
B-cell Lymphoma
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
What is the most common subtype of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
Lymphocyte rich
Mixed cellularity
Nodular sclerosing
Lymphocyte poor
Which cell markers are positive in Reed-Sternberg cells?
CD20+ and CD5+
CD4+ and CD8+
CD15+ and CD30+
CD19+ and CD22+
What is a common symptom of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
Joint pain
Severe headaches
Weight gain
Painless lymphadenopathy
What age group shows a bimodal distribution for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
10s-20s and 60s-70s
15s-25s and 80s-90s
20s-30s and 70s-80s
30s-40s and 50s-60s
What is the typical gender ratio for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
M:F = 2:1
M:F = 1:1
M:F = 3:1
M:F = 4:1
What is a common finding in Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma compared to Hodgkin's?
Extranodal involvement uncommon
Single axial group of nodes
Multiple peripheral nodes involvement
Localized to cervical nodes
What symptom is associated with Pemberton's Sign?
SVC obstruction
Myocardial infarction
Pulmonary embolism
Aortic dissection
Which investigation can show right hilar masses in lymphoma?
ECG
Ultrasound
MRI
Chest X-Ray
What is a key laboratory finding in Glandular Fever?
Increased eosinophils
Increased lymphocytes
Decreased platelets
Increased neutrophils
What is the typical incubation period for Glandular Fever?
2-4 weeks
4-8 weeks
1-2 weeks
8-12 weeks
How is Glandular Fever primarily transmitted?
Blood transfusion
Vector-borne
Airborne droplets
Orally via saliva
Which cells are responsible for the immune response in EBV infection?
CD4+ T cells
Natural killer cells
B cells
CD8+ T cells
What test can confirm the presence of EBV in Glandular Fever?
CT scan
PCR
ELISA (viral capsid antigen)
X-ray
What is a common test for diagnosing EBV infection?
ELISA for viral capsid antigen
Blood culture for mycobacterium
Mantoux test
PCR for HIV RNA
What does a positive Rapidmonospot test indicate?
Non-tuberculosis mycobacteria
Recent EBV infection
Acute HIV infection
Chronic hepatitis
What is a common cause of disseminated mycobacterial infection in AIDS patients?
Staphylococcus aureus
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium avium complex
Escherichia coli
What does a low CD4+ count indicate in an HIV patient?
Viral clearance
Immunocompromised status
Normal immune function
Acute bacterial infection
What is a key differential diagnosis for atypical TB?
Lymphoma
Hepatitis A
Gastroenteritis
Toxoplasmosis
What is a common transmission route for Toxoplasmosis?
Airborne particles
Contaminated water
Improperly cooked meat
Direct skin contact
What test can confirm Toxoplasmosis infection?
Positive ELISA for Toxoplasma gondii IgM and IgG
Western blot for anti-HIV
PCR for HIV RNA
Mantoux test
What is a typical symptom of acute HIV seroconversion illness?
Severe abdominal pain
Fever and rash
Chronic cough
Joint swelling
What is the purpose of the PCR test in HIV diagnosis?
Determine CD4+ count
Test for antibodies
Detect HIV RNA
Identify viral load
What is a common finding in patients with Classical TB?
Headache
Nausea and vomiting
Cough and weight loss
Severe abdominal pain
What is ELISA used for in the context of HIV testing?
It detects HIV RNA directly.
It measures P24 antigen levels.
It is a screening test for HIV.
It is a definitive test for HIV.
What is the provisional diagnosis for the 40-year-old man with fever, malaise, and night sweats?
Brucellosis
HIV infection
Classical TB
Pneumonia
What does a positive Quantiferon test measure?
Gamma interferon in blood
Viral load
Bacterial infection
HIV antibodies
What is the main symptom of Barmah Forest Virus (BFV)?
Nausea
Severe headache
Arthritis/arthralgia
High fever
How is Ross River Virus (RRV) primarily transmitted?
Direct contact with infected animals
Contaminated water
Human-mosquito-human cycles
Airborne transmission
What is the main characteristic of human brucellosis?
It is a significant pathogen worldwide.
It is only found in Australia.
It is caused by a virus.
It has a high person-to-person transmission rate.
What zoonotic disease is caused by Coxiella Burnetii?
Ross River Virus
Barmah Forest Virus
Brucellosis
Q Fever
What is a common symptom of HHV-6B infection in children?
Meningitis
Pneumonia
Roseola
Arthritis
What is the significance of IgM antibodies in the diagnosis of BFV?
Indicates past infection.
Presence indicates active infection.
Is irrelevant to diagnosis.
Shows immunity to the virus.
What is the incubation period for Ross River Virus (RRV)?
3-30 days
2-21 days
1-14 days
1-7 days
What are common symptoms of acute cases?
Diarrhoea, sweats, nausea
High fevers, general malaise, confusion, chills
Vomiting, myalgia, sore throat
Chest pain, abdominal pain, severe headache
How is C.burnetii commonly diagnosed?
Culture of the bacteria
Blood test for glucose
X-ray imaging
Detection of specific antibodies
What is the most common type of pancreatic tumour?
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Cystadenoma
Insulinoma
Gastrinoma
What is a significant risk factor for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
Smoking
Obesity
High sugar diet
Sedentary lifestyle
What is a common symptom of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
Fever
Nasal congestion
Jaundice
Cough
What is the typical first line investigation for pancreatic tumours?
Ultrasound
X-ray
CT abdomen
MRI
Which type of oesophageal tumour is most common?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Stromal tumour
Adenocarcinoma
Gastric lymphoma
What characterizes gastric adenocarcinoma?
Associated with high sugar diet
High incidence in Japan, Costa Rica, Chile
Low incidence in Western countries
Common in children
What is a precursor to gastric adenocarcinoma?
Acute gastritis
GORD
Chronic atrophic gastritis
Cholecystitis
What type of cells are found in the gastric epithelium?
Cuboidal cells
Stratified squamous cells
Transitional cells
Simple columnar cells
What type of gastric adenocarcinoma is associated with glandular differentiation and abundant mucin?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
Carcinoid tumors
Diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma
Intestinal type gastric adenocarcinoma
What is a characteristic feature of diffuse/infiltrative gastric adenocarcinoma?
Signet ring cell appearance
Glandular differentiation
Abundant mucin
Chronic gastritis
What does linitis plastica refer to in gastric cancer?
Early satiety
Rigid thickened walls of the stomach
Abundant mucin production
Signet ring cell formation
What is a key prognostic factor in gastric cancer staging?
Size of the tumor
Location of the tumor
Depth of invasion
Age of the patient
What are common clinical manifestations of gastric cancer?
Excessive sweating
Nasal congestion
Abdominal mass or pain
Severe headaches
What is the most common mode of spread for gastric cancer?
Direct contact to neighboring organs
Spread through the nervous system
Hematogenous spread, especially to the liver
Lymphatic spread only
What is the typical management approach for early gastric cancer?
Radiotherapy only
Surgical resection
Chemotherapy only
Observation without treatment
What type of lymphoma is associated with H. pylori infection?
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Hodgkin lymphoma
MALT lymphoma
What are gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) associated with?
Mutations in KIT proto-oncogene
Chronic gastritis
Viral infections
H. pylori infection
Which hormone-related syndrome is associated with carcinoid tumors?
Addison's disease
Cushing's syndrome
Carcinoid syndrome due to 5-HT
Graves' disease
What is a common symptom of small bowel adenocarcinomas?
Frequent urination
Asymptomatic in most cases
Coughing up blood
Severe abdominal pain
What does conjunctival pallor indicate in a patient?
Hyperglycemia
Hypertension
Anaemia
Dehydration
What is the significance of endoscopy in gastric cancer diagnosis?
It allows for biopsy
It is used for symptom management
It is a treatment method
It only provides imaging
What is a key histological finding in diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma?
Signet ring cells
Normal glandular cells
Absence of lymphocytes
High levels of plasma cells
What is the provisional diagnosis for a patient with epigastric pain and weight loss?
Gastritis
Irritable bowel syndrome
Diffuse/Infiltrative Gastric Adenocarcinoma
Peptic ulcer disease
What is the likely outcome for most gastric cancer patients at the time of diagnosis?
No symptoms present
Already metastasized
Localized disease only
Completely curable
What is the histological finding in the femoral head associated with cancer?
Normal bone marrow
Dense fibrous tissue
Inflammatory cells
Connective tissue with glandular structures lined by malignant cells
What is a common symptom of colorectal cancer (CRC)?
Nausea
Weight gain
Severe abdominal pain
Rectal bleeding
What is a potential cause of rectal bleeding?
Pancreatitis
Gallstones
Haemorrhoids
Liver cirrhosis
What imaging technique is used to examine the biliary tract for obstruction?
CT scan
X-ray
Ultrasound
MRI
What type of jaundice is caused by hemolysis?
Post-hepatic jaundice
Pre-hepatic jaundice
Hepatic jaundice
Obstructive jaundice
What is a characteristic of post-hepatic jaundice?
Elevated hemoglobin
Pale stool due to obstruction
Normal liver function tests
Dark urine
What is a common investigation for suspected pancreatic head carcinoma?
Colonoscopy
Abdominal CT
MRI of the brain
Endoscopy
What is a sign of migratory thrombophlebitis in cancer patients?
Painless swelling
Rash
Painful, visible thrombosis
Severe headache
What can cause pathological fractures in cancer patients?
Normal aging
Vitamin D deficiency
Weakening of bone due to cancerous infiltration
Excessive exercise
What is a common symptom of pancreatic head carcinoma?
Leg swelling
Severe headache
Chest pain
Epigastric pain radiating to the back
What is the resting state in the cell cycle called?
G2
G0
M
G1
Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA synthesis?
S
G1
M
G2
What type of chemotherapy is dependent on the cell cycle phase?
Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
Immunotherapy
Targeted Therapy
Hormonal Therapy
What is the main effect of traditional cytotoxic agents?
Block protein synthesis
Inhibit RNA production
Target immune cells
Break up DNA strands
Which therapy targets the MAPK pathway?
Radiotherapy
Immunotherapy
Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
Targeted Agents
What is a common side effect of chemotherapy?
Weight gain
Increased appetite
Myelosuppression
Skin rash
What is the most common site of hepatic metastases?
Bones
Liver
Brain
Lungs
What symptom is associated with lung metastases?
Weight loss
Nausea
Headache
Dyspnoea
Which cancer types are most commonly associated with bone metastases?
Prostate, lung, and breast cancer
Skin, stomach, and liver cancer
Thyroid, ovarian, and testicular cancer
Brain, kidney, and pancreatic cancer
What is a potential symptom of cerebral metastases?
Fatigue
Nausea
Diarrhoea
Headache
What is a common treatment for pathological fractures?
Analgesics
Antibiotics
Antihistamines
Antidepressants
What percentage of patients dying from cancer have spinal metastases?
90%
50%
70%
80%
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly associated with carcinoma?
Transitional zone
Central zone
Periurethral zone
Peripheral zone
What is a common symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Weight loss
Urinary obstruction
Severe pain
Nausea
What is the typical age range for the highest incidence of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
By age 80
By age 60
By age 30
By age 90
What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in Australia?
Lung cancer
Prostatic carcinoma
Skin cancer
Breast cancer
What is the Gleason score used for?
Evaluating liver disease
Grading of prostate carcinoma
Staging of lung cancer
Assessing kidney function
What is the Gleason score based on?
Location of the tumour
Size of the tumour only
Dominant tumour nodule and second largest nodule
Patient's age
What is a common clinical feature of prostate carcinoma?
Frequent urination
Elevated PSA
Severe pain
Weight gain
What can elevated PSA levels indicate?
Prostatitis
Kidney stones
Only cancer
Diabetes
What type of biopsy is used for prostate carcinoma diagnosis?
Liver biopsy
Bone biopsy
Trans-Rectal/Trans-Perineal Biopsy
Skin biopsy
What is a common symptom of urothelial carcinoma?
Painless haematuria
Fever
Nausea
Severe abdominal pain
What is the most common location for urothelial carcinoma?
Bladder
Kidney
Urethra
Prostate
What is a risk factor for urothelial carcinoma?
Smoking
High cholesterol
Obesity
Diabetes
What is a characteristic of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Significant weight loss
Irregular hard mass
Smooth, enlarged, non-tender prostate gland
Tenderness upon examination
What is a histological feature of prostate carcinoma?
Fibromuscular stroma
Increased secretory layer
Presence of inflammation
Disappearance of the basal layer
What is a common investigation for prostate carcinoma?
PSA blood test
Urine test
X-ray
CT scan
What is the serum PSA level mentioned in the investigations?
120 ng/mL
150 ng/mL
80 ng/mL
100 ng/mL
What does an elevated serum PSA not necessarily indicate?
Prostatitis
BPH
Cancer
Ejaculation
What is indicated by an osteosclerotic lesion at L4 vertebrae?
Normal bone structure
BPH
Bone carcinoma (metastasis)
Prostatitis
What is a precursor to prostatic adenocarcinoma?
Prostatitis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia
Dysplasia
What are the cytological features of prostatic adenocarcinoma?
Mitotic figures, increased N:C ratio, pleomorphism
Normal cell structure
Uniform cell shapes
Reduced N:C ratio
What is a common histological feature of papillary urothelial carcinoma?
Absence of blood vessels
Solid mass formation
Formation of large papillary structures
Necrotic areas
What is the common age group for testicular neoplasms?
40-50 years
50-60 years
15-25 years
25-40 years
What percentage of testicular tumours arise from germ cells?
80%
50%
90%
70%
What is a common histological feature of seminoma?
Absence of lymphocytes
Large, round nuclei with distinct borders
Necrotic regions
Irregular cell shapes
What is the first-line management for suspected testicular malignancy?
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
Radical orchiectomy
Observation
What is the prognosis for testicular cancer generally?
Uncertain
Very good
Average
Poor
What type of cells are Leidig/Sertoli cells associated with in sex cord stromal tumors?
Generally benign
Invasive
Aggressive
Malignant
What was the primary symptom of the 65-year-old man with Squamous Cell Carcinoma?
Chest pain
Weight loss
Fever
Worsening dyspnoea
Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for lung cancer?
Diabetes
Infection (TB)
Asthma
Hypertension
What is a potential complication if the pleura is affected by lung cancer?
Pleuritic pain
Coughing up blood
Chest tightness
Shortness of breath
What is a common characteristic of Small Cell Lung Carcinoma (SCLC)?
Non-aggressive
Found in non-smokers
Strongly associated with smoking
Better prognosis than NSCLC
What does the presence of keratin pearls in histology indicate?
Lymphoma
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the first step in investigating lung lesions?
Blood tests
X-ray
Thoracic CT
Physical examination
What is a common site of metastasis for Small Cell Lung Carcinoma?
Brain
Liver
Kidney
Skin
What condition is indicated by low potassium in a patient with SCLC?
Dehydration
Paraneoplastic syndrome
Heart failure
Kidney failure
What is a histological feature of adenocarcinoma?
Blue cells
Desmoplastic reaction
Glandular formation
Keratin pearls
What histological feature is associated with small blue cells and increased N:C ratio?
Desmoplastic reaction
Fibrosis
Glandular structures with mucin
Neuroendocrine immunochemistry markers
Where do adenocarcinomas typically occur in the lungs?
Central region
Upper lobe
Lung periphery
Cardiac silhouette
What are potential primary tumors in a case of disseminated malignancy?
Breast, brain, ovary, uterine, lung, colorectal
Thyroid, stomach, prostate
Pancreas, liver, skin
Kidney, bladder, esophagus
What is a common symptom of tubal ectopic pregnancy?
Lower right abdominal pain
Upper left abdominal pain
Chest pain
Severe headache
Which test is positive in ectopic pregnancy?
Pelvic ultrasound
CT scan
Serum B-HCG
Urine pregnancy test
What can result from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
Increased fertility
Normal pregnancy
Massive abdominal hemorrhage
Ovarian torsion
What is the common treatment for ectopic pregnancy?
Emergency Laparoscopy (salpingectomy)
Radiation therapy
Observation
Medication therapy
What is the most common cause of pregnancy-related death in the 1st trimester?
Gestational diabetes
Miscarriage
Preeclampsia
Ectopic pregnancy
What is a common complication of acute chronic salpingitis?
Endometrial hyperplasia
Sepsis
Ovarian cancer
Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
What are the clinical features of PID?
Dysuria, weight gain, irregular periods
Fatigue, headache, back pain
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
Fever, abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge
What is the most significant area to get inflamed in salpingitis?
Cervix
Uterus
Ovaries
Fallopian tubes
What test is used to diagnose chlamydia?
Endometrial biopsy
PCR (nucleic amplification)
Blood test
Urinalysis
What is the appearance of the uterine tube in pyosalpinx?
Thin, smooth wall
Hemorrhagic surface
Normal appearance
Distorted, thickened wall coated with white purulent exudate
Which symptom is associated with endometriosis?
Menorrhagia
Anemia
Dysmenorrhea
Polycystic ovaries
What is a common risk factor for endometriosis?
Smoking
Age over 40
Nulliparity
High BMI
What is the confirmatory test for endometriosis?
Blood test
Laparoscopy
MRI
Transvaginal ultrasound
What is the treatment for endometriosis?
Radiation therapy
Surgery only
Antibiotics
Hormonal contraception
What is a common treatment for endometriosis?
Radiation therapy
Ablation
Chemotherapy
Hormone therapy
What is a symptom of cervical cancer?
Post-coital bleeding
Menopause symptoms
Urethral discharge
Heavy menstrual bleeding
What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
Lymphoma
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the first step in cervical cancer screening?
Blood test
Pelvic exam
CT scan
Screening for HPV virus
What is a common symptom of urethral Chlamydia infection?
Fever
Urethral discharge
Abdominal pain
Back pain
What does a positive oxidase test indicate?
Presence of viruses
Presence of fungi
Presence of certain bacteria
Presence of parasites
What antibiotic is commonly used to treat Chlamydia?
Doxycycline
Amoxicillin
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
What is a typical symptom of urethral discharge in men?
Dysuria
Nausea
Headache
Chest pain
What is the significance of a Gram stain showing no bacterial growth?
Indicates a bacterial infection
Indicates a fungal infection
Indicates a viral infection
Chlamydia are obligate intracellular bacteria
What type of cancer is most likely with abnormal discharge and bleeding during intercourse?
Breast cancer
Ovarian cancer
Cervical cancer
Uterine cancer
What is the most common cause of vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age?
Candidiasis
Bacterial vaginosis
Chlamydia
Trichomoniasis
What is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis?
Metronidazole
Doxycycline or azithromycin
Clindamycin
Fluconazole
Which symptom is associated with Chlamydia?
Itching
Fishy odor
Post-coital bleeding
Thick white discharge
What is a protective factor against bacterial vaginosis?
Douching
Multiple sex partners
Antibiotics
Hormonal contraceptives
What is the common discharge characteristic of candidiasis?
Thin, gray discharge
Green, yellow discharge
Thick, white discharge
Purulent discharge
What is the most common species causing candidiasis?
Candida glabrata
Candida albicans
Candida tropicalis
Candida krusei
What is the recommended treatment for trichomoniasis?
Vaginal cream
Oral metronidazole
Oral fluconazole
Topical clindamycin
What is the diagnostic method for bacterial vaginosis?
Pap smear
Amsel’s criteria or pH dipstick
Urine test
Blood test
What is a common risk factor for bacterial vaginosis?
Circumcised male partners
Hormonal contraceptives
Multiple sex partners
Pregnancy
What should be advised after treatment for chlamydia?
Use condoms
Regular check-ups
No sex for 7 days
Avoid alcohol
What is the common cause of genital ulcer in Australia?
Syphilis
Chlamydia trachomatis
HSV-1
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
What test is positive for Candida Albicans in a case of vaginal discharge?
Germ Tube Test
Culture on VCN
PCR for Chlamydia
Gram stain
What is the treatment for vulvar irritation due to irritant contact dermatitis?
Topical antibiotics
Surgical intervention
Corticosteroid injections
Avoid pads/panty liners
What condition is characterized by vulvovaginal atrophy in menopausal women?
Bacterial vaginosis
Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause
Chlamydia infection
Vulvar cancer
What type of dermatitis is commonly associated with a family history of asthma?
Seborrheic Dermatitis
Corticosteroid Dermatitis
Atopic Dermatitis
Irritant Contact Dermatitis
What is the typical presentation of primary syphilis?
Painful vesicles
Rash on palms
Painless single erythematous ulcer
Swollen lymph nodes
What is the usual response time for topical estrogens in Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause?
Quickly
Slowly
Varies greatly
Not at all
What is the typical recurrence rate for HSV genital ulcers?
No recurrences
1-2 recurrences a year
10-12 recurrences a year
2-8 recurrences a year
What is the main treatment for primary HSV infection?
Corticosteroids
Surgery
Antibiotics
Antivirals
What type of microscopy result is expected in a case of Chlamydia infection?
Gram negative cocci
No bacterial growth
Fungal growth
Gram positive rods
What is often misdiagnosed and can present with inguinal lymph nodes or rash on palms or soles of feet?
HIV
Gonorrhea
Chlamydia
Syphilis
What is the initial screening test for HIV?
NAT
Immunoassay (ELISA/EIA or CLIA)
Western Blot
HIV p24 antigen
What indicates active HIV infection and is usually positive post-infection day 17?
ELISA
NAT
Western Blot
HIV p24 antigen serology
Which opportunistic infection occurs when CD4 count is less than 50?
Aspergillosis
Candida albicans
Toxoplasmosis
CMV Retinitis
What do hormonal contraceptives suppress to stop the release of FSH and LH?
Adrenal hormones
Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
Thyroid hormones
Ovarian function
What is a positive effect of estrogen in hormonal contraception?
Fluid retention
Increased libido
Breast enlargement
Lighter bleeding
Which contraceptive method can cause irregular bleeding and may increase LDL levels?
Barrier methods
Progesterone
Estrogen
Copper IUD
What do emergency contraceptive pills do?
Induce abortion
Prevent ovulation
Thicken cervical mucus
Prevent implantation
What does the gen receptor for oestrogens suppress?
FSH release
Testosterone release
Progesterone release
LH release
What is the main function of emergency contraceptive pills?
Enhance fertility
Prevent STIs
Increase ovulation
Used after unprotected sex
Which hormone does Levonorgestrel delay?
Implantation
Menstruation
FSH
Ovulation
What does the Copper IUD release to prevent fertilization?
Hormones
Copper ions
Estrogens
Spermicides
What is the standard regimen for hormonal contraceptives?
14 days of hormonal contraceptives + 7 days of sugar pills
21 days of hormonal contraceptives + 7 days of sugar pills
21 days of sugar pills + 7 days of hormonal contraceptives
30 days of hormonal contraceptives + 0 days of sugar pills
What is a common symptom of submucosal fibroids?
Oligomenorrhea
Menorrhagia
Dysmenorrhea
Amenorrhea
What is the clinical presentation of an imperforate hymen?
Menorrhagia
Secondary amenorrhea
Dysmenorrhea
Primary amenorrhea
What is Uterus Didelphys?
A rare congenital anomaly with two uterine cavities
A type of fibroid
A hormonal disorder
A form of cancer
What triggers the LH surge in the endometrial cycle?
Oestrogen surge
FSH surge
Progesterone surge
Testosterone surge
What is Turner Syndrome characterized by?
Partial or complete absence of one X chromosome
Extra Y chromosome
Extra X chromosome
No X chromosome
What is Klinefelter's Syndrome?
Affects females with missing X chromosome
Affects individuals with no Y chromosome
Affects individuals with two Y chromosomes
Affects males with one or more extra X chromosomes
What does Kallman’s syndrome combine?
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anopsia
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia
Hypogonadotropic and hyperosmia
Hypogonadism and hyperosmia
What is the role of Sertoli cells in sexual differentiation?
Secretes MIS
Secretes androgens
Inhibits follicle rupture
Stimulates oocyte development
What is Kallman’s syndrome a combination of?
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
5 alpha-reductase deficiency
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anopsia or hyposmia
Androgen insensitivity and testicular feminisation
What does 5 alpha-reductase deficiency prevent the conversion of?
DHT to testosterone
Testosterone to estrogen
Estrogen to testosterone
DHT to progesterone
What is the most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) due to?
21-hydroxylase deficiency
11-hydroxylase deficiency
5 alpha-reductase deficiency
17-hydroxylase deficiency
What marks the onset of the first stage of labour?
Delivery of placenta
Regular contractions
Delivery of baby
Full dilation of cervix
What occurs during the latent phase of the first stage of labour?
Active pushing phase
Crowning of the baby’s head
Effacement and dilatation of the cervix
Delivery of the placenta
What is the duration of the second stage of labour in nulliparous women?
4 hours
2 hours
30 minutes
1 hour
What is a common risk associated with a prolonged second stage of labour?
Reduced uterine contractions
Increased maternal weight
Prolonged pregnancy
Fetal distress
What is defined as blood loss over 500mL postpartum?
Preterm labour
Placental abruption
Postpartum haemorrhage
Gestational diabetes
What can lower the risk of postpartum haemorrhage?
Immediate discharge
Controlled cord traction
Increased fluid intake
Prolonged labour
What is the term for the angle of the fetus in relation to the mother and uterus?
Station
Position
Lie
Attitude
What happens to the baby’s head during normal labour as it reaches the pelvic outlet?
It turns sideways
It moves back to the transverse position
It remains in a flexed position
It rotates fully to face the anterior aspect
What is the definition of tumHaemorrhage?
Blood loss during pregnancy
Blood loss under 500mL
Blood loss over 1000mL
Blood loss over 500mL
Which of the following is a non-pharmacological method for managing labor?
Morphine
Nitric oxide
Epidural
Acupuncture
What percentage of clinical pregnancies may result in miscarriage?
Up to 50%
Up to 20%
Up to 10%
Up to 30%
What is a common cause of miscarriage?
Stress
Chromosomal abnormality (aneuploidy)
Poor diet
Infection
What is the recommended management for a complete miscarriage?
Surgical intervention
Medical management
Psychological support only
Immediate hospitalization
What is a symptom of a molar pregnancy?
Loss of appetite
Dark brown to bright red vaginal bleeding
Severe abdominal pain
High fever
How often should bHCG levels be monitored after D&C for molar pregnancy?
Monthly for 6 months
Every 2 weeks for 6 months
Weekly for 3 months
Only once after 1 month
What is the recurrence risk of molar pregnancy?
~1%
~5%
~10%
~20%
What is the common treatment for gestational trophoblastic disease?
Surgical intervention
Antibiotics
Radiation therapy
Chemotherapy (methotrexate)
What defines recurrent miscarriage?
Two first trimester miscarriages
Any second trimester loss
Three first trimester miscarriages in a row
One miscarriage in any trimester
What is a common investigation for uterine abnormalities in recurrent miscarriages?
CT scan
Ultrasound
MRI scan
Sonohysterography
What is a known cause of recurrent miscarriages related to maternal age?
Chromosomal aneuploidy
Uterine fibroids
Cervical incompetence
Endometriosis
What is the management for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?
Antibiotics
Steroids
Aspirin and clexane
Insulin
What is the major cause of maternal morbidity in the first trimester?
Preeclampsia
Placenta previa
Ectopic pregnancy
Gestational diabetes
What is the clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy?
Amenorrhoea and acute abdominal pain
Heavy bleeding
Severe back pain
Frequent urination
What is the definitive surgical management for ectopic pregnancy?
Methotrexate
Conservative management
Salpingostomy
Salpingectomy
What is required for termination of pregnancy beyond 22 weeks?
Notification of the Ministry of Health
Agreement of two doctors
Consent from the patient
Approval from a hospital ethics board
What is a method of first trimester termination of pregnancy?
Misoprostol
Mifepristone
Suction termination
Dilation and curettage
What is a characteristic of placenta previa?
High blood pressure
Painful contractions
Painless bleeding
Severe abdominal pain
What defines severe pre-eclampsia?
Placenta previa
HELLP syndrome
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Gestational diabetes
What is the embryonic period in human development?
0-3 months
Beginning of 4th to end of 8th week
6-9 months
3-6 months
What is the timeline for gestational age calculation?
Count from last menstrual period
Count from fertilization
Count from ovulation
Count from conception
When does the fetal period begin?
At birth
Beginning of the third month
At conception
At the end of the second month
What is the first stage of embryonic development?
Organogenesis
Gastrulation
Cleavage
Fertilisation
What does a pregnancy test measure?
Progesterone levels
Estrogen levels
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Alpha-Fetal protein (AFP)
What is the purpose of ultrasonography during pregnancy?
To create an image of the fetus
To perform genetic testing
To measure hCG levels
To screen for diabetes
What does an increase in Alpha-Fetal protein (AFP) suggest?
Sex chromosome abnormalities
Neural tube defects
Down syndrome
Trisomy 21
At what weeks is amniocentesis typically performed?
10-12 weeks
6-8 weeks
20-30 weeks
14-18 weeks
What is a reason for performing an invasive approach for prenatal testing?
Normal ultrasound results
Healthy family history
Advanced maternal age (>35 y/o)
Low maternal age (<20 y/o)
What genetic disorder is characterized by 45 XO?
Trisomy 21
Klinefelter Syndrome
Down Syndrome
Turner Syndrome
What is a common feature of Down Syndrome?
Flat nasal bridge
Upslanting palpebral fissures
Webbed neck
Short stature
What percentage of birth defects are caused by teratogens?
7-10%
20-25%
30-35%
1-2%
What is a consequence of smoking during pregnancy?
Higher IQ
Increased birth weight
Intrauterine growth restriction
Reduced prematurity
What syndrome is associated with craniofacial abnormalities due to alcohol exposure?
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Down Syndrome
Turner Syndrome
Trisomy 18
What are craniofacial abnormalities associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?
Normal upper lip, normal philtrum, normal palpebral fissures
Wide upper lip, long philtrum, large palpebral fissures
Flat upper lip, short philtrum, wide palpebral fissures
Thin upper lip, elongated philtrum, short palpebral fissures
What is a common symptom of rubella?
Increased heart rate
Swollen lymph nodes
Thickening of the skin
Blueberry muffin rash
What is thalidomide known to affect?
Limb bud outgrowth
Skin elasticity
Heart development
Neural tube formation
What is the treatment for teratoma when malignant?
Chemotherapy/radiation
Physical therapy
Antibiotics
Hormonal therapy
What is the condition characterized by inverted sides?
Situs inversus
Craniosynostosis
Polydactyly
Anencephaly
What is a symptom of anencephaly?
Underdeveloped brain
Enlarged skull
Overdeveloped brain
Normal brain size
What causes holoprosencephaly?
Failure of prosencephalon to split
Excessive growth of neural tissue
Defective cranial suture closure
Inadequate blood supply to brain
What is the treatment for cleft lip/palate syndrome?
Physical therapy
No treatment needed
Medication
Surgery in the first year
What is hypospadias?
Undescended testicles
Opening in dorsal wall of penis
Narrowed urethra
Enlarged prostate
What is the cause of Hirschsprung's Disease?
Excessive innervation of intestine
Lack of innervation of intestine
Genetic mutation in muscle cells
Infection of the intestines
What is a symptom of intestinal obstruction in newborns?
Excessive crying
Swollen stomach
High fever
Skin rash
What is a common treatment for intestinal obstruction?
Antibiotics
Physical therapy
Radiation therapy
Surgery to bypass or remove affected part of colon
What is the first phase of fertilization?
Sperm activation
Fusion of oocyte and sperm cell membranes
Penetration of corona radiata
Penetration of zona pellucida
What does IVF stand for?
Internal fertilization
Instant fertilization
In vitro fertilization
In vivo fertilization
What is the anterior-posterior axis also known as?
Vertical Axis
Left-Right Axis
Craniocaudal Axis
Dorsoventral Axis
What is a critical period for teratogenesis?
Pre-implantation period
Postnatal period
Organogenesis (2-8 weeks post-conception)
Fetal period (9 weeks - birth)
What can high doses of Lithium (> 900mg/day) cause during pregnancy?
Cardiac defects
Cleft lip/palate
Neural tube defects
Limb malformations
What happens to GI absorption during pregnancy?
Slower GI absorption/vomiting
Decreased vomiting
No change in GI absorption
Increased GI absorption
Which drug category is considered safe during pregnancy?
Category C
Category B
Category D
Category A
What is the effect of molecular weight on drug transfer across the placenta?
MW has no effect
MW<600 crosses placenta
MW>1000 crosses placenta
MW<1000 does not cross
What is the ADEC category for drugs with inadequate studies in animals but show no evidence of harm in humans?
C
B3
B2
D
Which of the following drugs is categorized as B2?
Venlafaxine
Carbamazepine
Labetalol
Acyclovir
What does Category C indicate regarding drug effects on human fetus?
Safe for all pregnancies
Only reversible effects
No risk of malformations
Harmful effects suspected without malformations
Which drug is classified under Category D?
Metronidazole
Warfarin
Codeine
Ribavirin
What is the risk level of drugs in Category X?
High risk of permanent damage to fetus
No risk at all
Safe for use during pregnancy
Only reversible damage
Which of the following should be avoided during breastfeeding?
Codeine
Acyclovir
Labetalol
Chemotherapy drugs
What is a key consideration for ADEC categorization?
Category B3 is not necessarily safer than C
All drugs in the same category are equally unsafe
Assigned after thorough evidence review
Stage of pregnancy is always considered
What should be done to minimize infant exposure during drug therapy?
Temporarily avoid breastfeeding
Increase breastfeeding frequency
Choose drugs with low protein binding
Use higher doses of drugs
What is the general assumption for infant drug exposure?
50% is safe
< 5% is always harmful
< 10% of maternal dose is considered safe
All drugs are safe in small amounts
What is the baseline risk percentage for birth defects?
10%
5%
3%
15%
Flashcards in this deck (410)
-
What are the three pillars of public health?
Health Management, Health Awareness, Health Research
Health Protection, Health Promotion, Health Prevention
Health Control, Health Support, Health Services
Health Education, Health Regulation, Health Safety
public_health pillars -
What does primary prevention aim to do?
Screen for early illness
Rehabilitate patients post-illness
Prevent illness or injury before it occurs
Manage existing diseases
public_health prevention -
Which of the following is a secondary prevention strategy?
Identifying high risk populations and treating modifiable risk factors
Immunization programs
Rehabilitation services
Promoting healthy lifestyles
public_health prevention -
What is involved in tertiary prevention?
Mitigating the impact of diseases already present
Preventing diseases before they occur
Screening for early symptoms
Promoting healthy lifestyle choices
public_health prevention -
Which tool is used for assessing risk of diabetes?
AUSDRISK Diabetic Risk Assessment
Colorectal Cancer Screening
Australian CVD Risk Assessment
Cervical Cancer Screening
diabetes risk_assessment -
What are non-modifiable risk factors for colorectal cancer?
High blood pressure, cholesterol, age < 50
Family history, age > 50, history of polyps
Physical inactivity, diet, diabetes
Smoking, alcohol, obesity
cancer risk_factors -
What is the purpose of screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
To treat existing AAA
To assess overall cardiovascular health
To prevent AAA from occurring
To detect AAA in high-risk populations
screening aaa -
What is the recommended screening for cervical cancer?
Pap smears for women over age 25 every 5 years
Annual mammograms for all women
Blood tests for HPV every year
CT scans for women over age 30
cancer screening -
What symptoms are associated with cervical cancer?
Dysuria, increased urinary frequency, vaginal discharge
Persistent cough, chest pain, weight loss
Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
Fatigue, fever, muscle aches
cancer symptoms -
What is the recommended screening for breast cancer in women under 40 years old?
No screening recommended
Biannual ultrasound screening
Monthly self-exams
Annual mammogram screening
health breast_cancer -
What is the main limitation of serum Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) testing?
No correlation with cancer
Invasive procedure
Low sensitivity
High rate of false positives
health prostate_cancer -
What is the formula for calculating sensitivity?
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TN}{TN + FP} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{FP}{TP + TN} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TP + FN}{TP} \)
Sensitivity = \( \frac{TP}{TP + FN} \)
health statistics -
What does a high Positive Predictive Value (PPV) indicate?
High chance of false negatives
Unreliable test results
High probability of having the disease when tested positive
Low risk of disease
health statistics -
What is the definition of Relative Risk (RR)?
Probability of disease occurrence
Likelihood of false positives
Comparison of risk between exposed and unexposed individuals
Difference in disease rates
health statistics -
What type of study can use Odds Ratio (OR)?
Cohort or case-control studies
Randomized controlled trials
Longitudinal studies
Cross-sectional studies
health statistics -
What is the definition of Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR)?
Ratio of exposed to unexposed
Total risk of disease
Difference in risk of disease with and without intervention
Percentage of population affected
health statistics -
What is the purpose of the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)?
To estimate the average recovery time
To identify the most effective treatment
To determine how many patients need treatment for one positive outcome
To calculate the total cost of treatment
health statistics -
What is the classification of primary homelessness?
Without conventional accommodation
Temporary shelter
Substandard accommodation
Living with family
health homelessness -
health illicit_drugs
-
What is a common effect of methamphetamine use?
Euphoria followed by depression
Decreased heart rate
Sedation
Increased CNS activity
health illicit_drugs -
drugs methamphetamine
-
What is the onset of action for meth when smoked or injected?
2-8 minutes
1-2 minutes
20 minutes
4-6 hours
drugs methamphetamine -
What are the potential effects of cocaine?
Happiness and confidence
Euphoria and relaxation
Memory enhancement
Drowsiness and sedation
drugs cocaine -
drugs cocaine
-
drugs cocaine
-
drugs cannabis
-
drugs ecstasy
-
What is the onset of action for ecstasy when taken orally?
1-2 minutes
2-8 minutes
20 minutes - 1 hour
4-6 hours
drugs ecstasy -
drugs ghb
-
drugs opioids
-
drugs opioids
-
What is the purpose of disulfiram in alcohol addiction treatment?
Enhances NMDA receptors
Increases dopamine
Blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase
Activates opioid receptors
drugs alcohol -
addiction assessment
-
What is Naltrexone used for in withdrawal management?
NMDA receptor antagonist
Nicotine replacement
Opioid receptor antagonist
Benzodiazepine
medication withdrawal -
What type of receptor does Varenicline act as a partial agonist at?
Dopamine receptors
Opioid receptors
Nicotinic receptors
GABA receptors
medication nicotine -
toxicology antidotes
-
What is a common symptom of mesotheliomas?
Malignant neoplasm of pleura
Lung fibrosis
Joint pain
Skin lesions
health mesothelioma -
What type of reaction is Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?
Type 1 hypersensitivity
Autoimmune reaction
Delayed hypersensitivity
Type 3/4 hypersensitivity reaction
health hypersensitivity -
What is the median survival for Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis without a lung transplant?
1-2 years
10 years
3-5 years
5-7 years
health pulmonary -
What is the most common species of Plasmodium causing malaria?
P. vivax
P. falciparum
P. malariae
P. ovale
tropical_infections malaria -
What is the primary cause of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome?
Viral infection
Allergic reaction
Chemical fumes/vapours
Bacterial infection
health ards -
Which investigation is used for screening malaria?
FBC
HRP2 tests
Thin Blood films
Thick Blood films
tropical_infections diagnostics -
What type of blood film is used for screening in malaria investigations?
Thick Blood films
FBC
Stool specimen
Thin Blood films
malaria investigations -
malaria parasites
-
malaria symptoms
-
What is the treatment for P. falciparum malaria?
Artemisinin
Quinine
Single dose of primaquine
Chloroquine
malaria treatment -
arbovirus disease
-
arbovirus incubation
-
What is the main transmission route for Giardiasis?
Airborne
Oral-faecal
Vector-borne
Blood transfusion
gastrointestinal protozoa -
What is the treatment for symptomatic Giardiasis?
Ciprofloxacin
Azithromycin
Amoxicillin
Tinidazole or Metronidazole
gastrointestinal treatment -
gastrointestinal symptoms
-
What is the mechanism of action for Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Inhibit serotonin reuptake
Block adrenergic receptors
Inhibit MAO-A and B
Increase dopamine production
pharmacology depression -
pharmacology side_effects
-
What is the mechanism of action of Ketamine in depression?
Inhibits serotonin
Acts on glutamate
Blocks norepinephrine
Enhances dopamine
pharmacology depression -
What condition is characterized by periods of mania or hypomania?
Major Depression
Schizophrenia
Bipolar Disorder
Anxiety Disorder
mental_health bipolar -
mental_health treatment
-
What is the main mood stabilizer used in treatment due to its cost and ease of use?
Olanzapine
Lithium
Carbamazepine
Valproate
treatment mood_stabilizers -
What is one of the adverse effects of Lithium?
Weight gain
Insomnia
Decreased thyroid function
Increased appetite
adverse_effects lithium -
treatment anxiety
-
mechanism anxiolytics
-
What type of symptoms are characterized by delusions and hallucinations in schizophrenia?
Negative symptoms
Disorganized symptoms
Positive symptoms
Cognitive symptoms
schizophrenia symptoms -
What is a common pathology found in schizophrenia?
Increased brain volume
Thickened cortex
Decreased blood flow
Enlarged ventricles
pathology schizophrenia -
What type of drugs are dopamine antagonists used to treat schizophrenia?
Anxiolytics
Antipsychotic drugs
Antidepressants
Mood stabilizers
treatment schizophrenia -
What is a potential side effect of typical antipsychotic drugs?
Tardive dyskinesia
Increased libido
Enhanced memory
Weight loss
adverse_effects antipsychotics -
What is the mechanism of action for benzodiazepines?
Inhibit norepinephrine release
Increase dopamine levels
Block serotonin receptors
Enhance response to GABA
mechanism anxiolytics -
side_effects anxiolytics
-
What is a common effect of dopamine antagonists in the tuberohypophyseal pathway?
Decreased prolactin levels
Increased prolactin levels
Increased serotonin levels
Decreased dopamine levels
pharmacology neurology -
Which type of dermatitis is characterized by an allergic reaction?
Atopic eczema
Seborrheic dermatitis
Allergic contact dermatitis
Irritant contact dermatitis
dermatology eczema -
What is the primary treatment for mild cellulitis caused by Staph.aureus?
IV vancomycin
Topical antibiotics
Dicloxacillin or flucloxacillin (oral)
Clindamycin (oral)
dermatology infections -
What is the most common cause of pharyngitis in industrialized countries?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Haemophilus influenzae
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
epidemiology infections -
dermatology eczema
-
What does M-protein in Strep.pyogenes help with?
Antibiotic resistance
Increased virulence
Biofilm formation
Anti-phagocytosis
microbiology virulence -
What is a common treatment for recurrent GAS infections to prevent rheumatic fever?
Topical corticosteroids
Benzathine penicillin (IM) monthly
Oral flucloxacillin
IV clindamycin
treatment infections -
dermatology morphology
-
What is commonly used for patch testing in allergic contact dermatitis?
Antibiotic sensitivity
Identify allergens to avoid
Skin hydration
Moisturizing agents
dermatology testing -
What is the treatment for severe cellulitis caused by Staph.aureus?
IV dicloxacillin or flucloxacillin
Topical antiseptics
Oral antibiotics
IV clindamycin
dermatology infections -
What is the treatment for scabies in case of allergy to Permethrin?
Fluconazole (oral)
Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion in water
Ivermectin (oral)
Terbinafine (oral)
scabies treatment -
What is the highest prevalence age group for scabies?
Children < 15 years old
Elderly > 65 years old
Teenagers 15-19 years old
Adults > 30 years old
scabies epidemiology -
scabies causative_agents
-
What is a characteristic symptom of Norwegian scabies?
Itchy rash
Loss of hair
Extensive thickening and crusting of skin
Red scaly nodules
scabies symptoms -
dermatophyte infections
-
tinea treatment
-
What skin layer is primarily responsible for UV protection?
Subcutaneous tissue
Hypodermis
Epidermis
Dermis
skin_anatomy epidermis -
What is the most important risk factor for skin cancer?
UV radiation
Chemotherapy
Inflammatory conditions
Genetics
skin_cancer risk_factors -
What does Actinic Keratosis appear as?
Thickened pink tumors
Smooth white lesions
Scaly/crusted red patches
Dark brown moles
actinic_keratosis symptoms -
What is the most common type of skin tumor?
Actinic Keratosis
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Melanoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
skin_cancer tumors -
What is a hallmark of Squamous Cell Carcinoma histology?
Langerhans cells
Basal cell atypia
Keratin pearls
Loss of ordered maturation
squamous_cell_carcinoma histology -
What is the most common skin cancer?
Melanoma
Seborrheic Keratosis
Keratoacanthoma
Basal Cell Carcinoma
cancer skin -
What is a key histological feature of Keratoacanthoma?
Blue color
Central Keratin plug
Dysplastic melanocytes
Symmetrical dome
histology cancer -
Which syndrome is associated with multiple basal cell carcinomas in individuals under 20?
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Down syndrome
Cowden syndrome
Gorlin syndrome
syndrome cancer -
What is a characteristic of Dysplastic naevus?
Pearly glistening nodules
Flat and waxy
Larger than acquired naevus (>5mm)
Central keratin plug
mole precursor -
What type of melanoma has a radial growth phase?
Lentigo maligna
Nodular
Acral/mucosal
Superficial spreading
melanoma cancer -
Which factor does NOT increase the risk of melanoma?
Weaker immune system
Pale skin
Family history
Dark skin phenotype
risk_factors melanoma -
What is the histological feature of melanoma?
More keratin
Symmetrical dome
Enlarged melanocytes forming nests
Central keratin plug
histology melanoma -
What is a clinical sign of concern for melanoma?
Central keratin plug
Uniform color
Diameter > 6mm
Flat and waxy
clinical_signs melanoma -
What is the effect of UV radiation on DNA?
Repairs DNA damage
Enhances p53 function
Causes mutations in the Hedgehog signaling pathway
Increases immune response
uv_radiation dna_damage -
What is the typical growth pattern of Basal Cell Carcinoma?
Slow growing, rarely metastasizes
Aggressive from the start
Rapid growth
Always metastasizes
growth cancer -
What is Seborrheic keratosis characterized by?
Malignant proliferation of keratinocytes
Increased proliferation of melanocytes
Bland proliferation of keratinocytes
Rapid cell division
pathology keratosis -
What does pigmented BCC signify?
Benign proliferation of melanocytes
Normal cell growth
Increased keratinocyte activity
Malignant proliferation of keratinocytes
pathology bcc -
pathology lentigo
-
What is the main characteristic of acquired melanocytic naevi?
Proliferation of melanocytes
Decreased cell activity
Benign cell growth
Proliferation of keratinocytes
pathology naevi -
What is the benefit of cytopathology in cancer diagnosis?
Rapid and cheap
Invasive and painful
Requires extensive training
Always accurate
diagnosis cytopathology -
What is a key feature of neoplasms?
Nuclear hypochromasia
Low N:C ratio
Foamy cytoplasm
Regular nuclear outlines
pathology neoplasm -
diagnosis biopsy
-
What is the advantage of intraoperative diagnostics (frozen section)?
Always accurate
Real-time decision making
Low cost
Requires patient involvement
diagnosis intraoperative -
What are serum tumour markers used for?
Preventing cancer
Identifying benign growths
General health check-ups
Cancer diagnosis in relevant clinical conditions
diagnosis tumour_markers -
What does molecular diagnosis of cancer aid in?
Predicting benign conditions
General health assessments
Specific treatment decisions
Routine check-ups
diagnosis molecular -
What is a common structure of the thyroid gland?
Single lobe
Three lobes
Two lobes connected by an isthmus
Circular structure
anatomy thyroid -
What is the arterial blood supply to the thyroid gland from the external carotid?
Thyroid IMA artery
Superior Thyroid Artery
Carotid artery
Inferior Thyroid Artery
anatomy thyroid -
What is the arterial blood supply for the thyroid gland?
External carotid→ Superior Thyroid Artery
Aorta→ Thyroid IMA artery
Subclavian→ Thyrocervical trunk
Internal jugular→ Inferior Thyroid Artery
anatomy thyroid -
What is the main hormone produced in large amounts by the thyroid gland?
T3
Calcitonin
T4
Thyroglobulin
endocrinology hormones -
What are the signs of hyperthyroidism?
Cold intolerance, hair loss, constipation
Pallor, muscle weakness, coarse hair
Tachycardia, weight loss, sweating
Weight gain, fatigue, hoarseness
symptoms hyperthyroidism -
symptoms hypothyroidism
-
What is Hashimoto's Thyroiditis?
Thyroid hyperplasia
Viral infection causing inflammation
Autoimmune disease with antibodies against thyroglobulin
Non-toxic goitre
thyroiditis autoimmune -
What is the most common type of thyroid neoplasia?
Anaplastic carcinoma
Medullary carcinoma
Follicular carcinoma
Papillary carcinoma
neoplasia thyroid -
What is a characteristic feature of Grave's disease?
Viral infection
Thyroiditis
Autoimmune antibodies against TSH receptor
Calcitonin secretion
hyperthyroidism graves -
What histological feature is seen in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis?
Cystic changes
Follicular hyperplasia
Calcification
Diffuse lymphocytic infiltrate
histology thyroiditis -
What is the treatment for Follicular carcinoma?
Chemotherapy
Observation
Medication
Surgery resection or radiotherapy
treatment neoplasia -
symptoms hyperplasia
-
What type of tumor is Medullary thyroid carcinoma associated with?
Follicular tumor
C-cell tumor
Anaplastic carcinoma
Lymphoma
oncology thyroid -
What hormone is secreted by parafollicular cells in Medullary thyroid carcinoma?
Thyroxine
Calcitonin
TSH
Triiodothyronine
endocrinology hormones -
medicine symptoms
-
In Graves' Disease, what is expected in thyroid function tests?
Normal TSH, high T4
High TSH, low T4/T3
Low TSH, high T4/T3
Low T4, high TSH
endocrinology diagnosis -
medicine symptoms
-
What condition is characterized by a small, non-tender goitre and increased TSH?
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Nodular goitre
Graves' Disease
Thyroid adenoma
endocrinology thyroid -
What type of lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells?
Burkitt lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
Hodgkin Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
oncology lymphoma -
What is a common sign of Hodgkin Lymphoma during physical examination?
Puffy face
Dry voice
Cold intolerance
Enlarged lymph nodes
oncology symptoms -
What is the term for the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in the skin due to hypothyroidism?
Lymphadenopathy
Edema
Xanthelasma
Myxedema
endocrinology symptoms -
What is the expected TSH level in a patient with primary hypothyroidism?
Decreased TSH
Normal TSH
Increased TSH
Variable TSH
endocrinology diagnosis -
What type of lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells?
T-cell Lymphoma
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
B-cell Lymphoma
lymphoma hodgkin -
What is the most common subtype of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
Nodular sclerosing
Mixed cellularity
Lymphocyte poor
Lymphocyte rich
lymphoma hodgkin -
Which cell markers are positive in Reed-Sternberg cells?
CD15+ and CD30+
CD19+ and CD22+
CD4+ and CD8+
CD20+ and CD5+
cells markers -
What is a common symptom of Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
Painless lymphadenopathy
Weight gain
Severe headaches
Joint pain
symptoms hodgkin -
What age group shows a bimodal distribution for Hodgkin's Lymphoma?
15s-25s and 80s-90s
30s-40s and 50s-60s
20s-30s and 70s-80s
10s-20s and 60s-70s
age lymphoma -
gender statistics
-
What is a common finding in Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma compared to Hodgkin's?
Multiple peripheral nodes involvement
Localized to cervical nodes
Single axial group of nodes
Extranodal involvement uncommon
lymphoma non-hodgkin -
What symptom is associated with Pemberton's Sign?
Myocardial infarction
SVC obstruction
Aortic dissection
Pulmonary embolism
symptoms signs -
investigations lymphoma
-
What is a key laboratory finding in Glandular Fever?
Increased neutrophils
Increased lymphocytes
Increased eosinophils
Decreased platelets
diagnosis glandular_fever -
incubation glandular_fever
-
How is Glandular Fever primarily transmitted?
Airborne droplets
Orally via saliva
Vector-borne
Blood transfusion
transmission glandular_fever -
Which cells are responsible for the immune response in EBV infection?
Natural killer cells
CD8+ T cells
B cells
CD4+ T cells
immune_response ebv -
What test can confirm the presence of EBV in Glandular Fever?
ELISA (viral capsid antigen)
X-ray
CT scan
PCR
tests glandular_fever -
What is a common test for diagnosing EBV infection?
Mantoux test
Blood culture for mycobacterium
ELISA for viral capsid antigen
PCR for HIV RNA
ebv diagnosis -
What does a positive Rapidmonospot test indicate?
Chronic hepatitis
Non-tuberculosis mycobacteria
Acute HIV infection
Recent EBV infection
ebv tests -
What is a common cause of disseminated mycobacterial infection in AIDS patients?
Escherichia coli
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Mycobacterium avium complex
Staphylococcus aureus
tb aids -
What does a low CD4+ count indicate in an HIV patient?
Immunocompromised status
Acute bacterial infection
Normal immune function
Viral clearance
hiv immunology -
What is a key differential diagnosis for atypical TB?
Toxoplasmosis
Hepatitis A
Lymphoma
Gastroenteritis
tb differential -
What is a common transmission route for Toxoplasmosis?
Contaminated water
Airborne particles
Direct skin contact
Improperly cooked meat
toxoplasmosis transmission -
What test can confirm Toxoplasmosis infection?
Positive ELISA for Toxoplasma gondii IgM and IgG
Mantoux test
PCR for HIV RNA
Western blot for anti-HIV
toxoplasmosis diagnosis -
What is a typical symptom of acute HIV seroconversion illness?
Chronic cough
Joint swelling
Severe abdominal pain
Fever and rash
hiv symptoms -
What is the purpose of the PCR test in HIV diagnosis?
Detect HIV RNA
Identify viral load
Determine CD4+ count
Test for antibodies
hiv diagnosis -
What is a common finding in patients with Classical TB?
Severe abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Headache
Cough and weight loss
tb symptoms -
What is ELISA used for in the context of HIV testing?
It is a definitive test for HIV.
It measures P24 antigen levels.
It detects HIV RNA directly.
It is a screening test for HIV.
hiv testing -
What is the provisional diagnosis for the 40-year-old man with fever, malaise, and night sweats?
Classical TB
Brucellosis
Pneumonia
HIV infection
tb diagnosis -
What does a positive Quantiferon test measure?
HIV antibodies
Bacterial infection
Gamma interferon in blood
Viral load
tb testing -
What is the main symptom of Barmah Forest Virus (BFV)?
High fever
Nausea
Severe headache
Arthritis/arthralgia
bfv symptoms -
How is Ross River Virus (RRV) primarily transmitted?
Contaminated water
Human-mosquito-human cycles
Airborne transmission
Direct contact with infected animals
rrv transmission -
What is the main characteristic of human brucellosis?
It is only found in Australia.
It is a significant pathogen worldwide.
It has a high person-to-person transmission rate.
It is caused by a virus.
brucellosis pathogen -
What zoonotic disease is caused by Coxiella Burnetii?
Brucellosis
Q Fever
Barmah Forest Virus
Ross River Virus
qfever zoonosis -
hhv-6 symptoms
-
What is the significance of IgM antibodies in the diagnosis of BFV?
Is irrelevant to diagnosis.
Indicates past infection.
Shows immunity to the virus.
Presence indicates active infection.
bfv diagnosis -
rrv incubation
-
What are common symptoms of acute cases?
Diarrhoea, sweats, nausea
Chest pain, abdominal pain, severe headache
Vomiting, myalgia, sore throat
High fevers, general malaise, confusion, chills
health symptoms -
How is C.burnetii commonly diagnosed?
X-ray imaging
Blood test for glucose
Detection of specific antibodies
Culture of the bacteria
diagnosis health -
What is the most common type of pancreatic tumour?
Insulinoma
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
Cystadenoma
Gastrinoma
cancer pancreas -
What is a significant risk factor for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
Sedentary lifestyle
Obesity
High sugar diet
Smoking
cancer risk_factors -
cancer symptoms
-
What is the typical first line investigation for pancreatic tumours?
CT abdomen
MRI
X-ray
Ultrasound
investigation health -
Which type of oesophageal tumour is most common?
Adenocarcinoma
Stromal tumour
Gastric lymphoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
cancer oesophagus -
What characterizes gastric adenocarcinoma?
Common in children
High incidence in Japan, Costa Rica, Chile
Low incidence in Western countries
Associated with high sugar diet
cancer stomach -
What is a precursor to gastric adenocarcinoma?
Cholecystitis
Acute gastritis
Chronic atrophic gastritis
GORD
cancer stomach -
What type of cells are found in the gastric epithelium?
Transitional cells
Cuboidal cells
Simple columnar cells
Stratified squamous cells
anatomy stomach -
What type of gastric adenocarcinoma is associated with glandular differentiation and abundant mucin?
Carcinoid tumors
Gastrointestinal stromal tumors
Diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma
Intestinal type gastric adenocarcinoma
cancer gastric -
What is a characteristic feature of diffuse/infiltrative gastric adenocarcinoma?
Chronic gastritis
Glandular differentiation
Signet ring cell appearance
Abundant mucin
cancer gastric -
What does linitis plastica refer to in gastric cancer?
Early satiety
Abundant mucin production
Rigid thickened walls of the stomach
Signet ring cell formation
cancer gastric -
What is a key prognostic factor in gastric cancer staging?
Age of the patient
Location of the tumor
Size of the tumor
Depth of invasion
cancer prognosis -
What are common clinical manifestations of gastric cancer?
Excessive sweating
Nasal congestion
Severe headaches
Abdominal mass or pain
symptoms cancer -
What is the most common mode of spread for gastric cancer?
Spread through the nervous system
Direct contact to neighboring organs
Lymphatic spread only
Hematogenous spread, especially to the liver
cancer metastasis -
What is the typical management approach for early gastric cancer?
Observation without treatment
Radiotherapy only
Surgical resection
Chemotherapy only
management cancer -
What type of lymphoma is associated with H. pylori infection?
Hodgkin lymphoma
Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
MALT lymphoma
lymphoma cancer -
What are gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) associated with?
Chronic gastritis
H. pylori infection
Viral infections
Mutations in KIT proto-oncogene
tumors cancer -
Which hormone-related syndrome is associated with carcinoid tumors?
Graves' disease
Carcinoid syndrome due to 5-HT
Addison's disease
Cushing's syndrome
tumors cancer -
What is a common symptom of small bowel adenocarcinomas?
Asymptomatic in most cases
Frequent urination
Severe abdominal pain
Coughing up blood
cancer symptoms -
symptoms diagnosis
-
What is the significance of endoscopy in gastric cancer diagnosis?
It is used for symptom management
It is a treatment method
It allows for biopsy
It only provides imaging
diagnosis procedure -
What is a key histological finding in diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma?
Signet ring cells
Normal glandular cells
Absence of lymphocytes
High levels of plasma cells
histology cancer -
What is the provisional diagnosis for a patient with epigastric pain and weight loss?
Irritable bowel syndrome
Diffuse/Infiltrative Gastric Adenocarcinoma
Peptic ulcer disease
Gastritis
diagnosis cancer -
What is the likely outcome for most gastric cancer patients at the time of diagnosis?
Localized disease only
Completely curable
Already metastasized
No symptoms present
outcome cancer -
What is the histological finding in the femoral head associated with cancer?
Dense fibrous tissue
Inflammatory cells
Connective tissue with glandular structures lined by malignant cells
Normal bone marrow
histology cancer -
What is a common symptom of colorectal cancer (CRC)?
Weight gain
Rectal bleeding
Nausea
Severe abdominal pain
symptoms oncology -
differential_diagnoses gastroenterology
-
What imaging technique is used to examine the biliary tract for obstruction?
Ultrasound
X-ray
MRI
CT scan
imaging diagnosis -
What type of jaundice is caused by hemolysis?
Post-hepatic jaundice
Obstructive jaundice
Hepatic jaundice
Pre-hepatic jaundice
jaundice pathophysiology -
What is a characteristic of post-hepatic jaundice?
Pale stool due to obstruction
Normal liver function tests
Elevated hemoglobin
Dark urine
jaundice diagnosis -
What is a common investigation for suspected pancreatic head carcinoma?
Colonoscopy
Endoscopy
Abdominal CT
MRI of the brain
investigations oncology -
What is a sign of migratory thrombophlebitis in cancer patients?
Painful, visible thrombosis
Painless swelling
Severe headache
Rash
symptoms oncology -
What can cause pathological fractures in cancer patients?
Weakening of bone due to cancerous infiltration
Excessive exercise
Vitamin D deficiency
Normal aging
pathology oncology -
What is a common symptom of pancreatic head carcinoma?
Epigastric pain radiating to the back
Severe headache
Leg swelling
Chest pain
symptoms oncology -
biology cell_cycle
-
biology cell_cycle
-
What type of chemotherapy is dependent on the cell cycle phase?
Hormonal Therapy
Targeted Therapy
Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
Immunotherapy
oncology chemotherapy -
What is the main effect of traditional cytotoxic agents?
Break up DNA strands
Target immune cells
Block protein synthesis
Inhibit RNA production
oncology chemotherapy -
Which therapy targets the MAPK pathway?
Radiotherapy
Immunotherapy
Targeted Agents
Cytotoxic Chemotherapy
oncology targeted_therapy -
What is a common side effect of chemotherapy?
Increased appetite
Myelosuppression
Skin rash
Weight gain
oncology side_effects -
oncology metastasis
-
oncology symptoms
-
Which cancer types are most commonly associated with bone metastases?
Thyroid, ovarian, and testicular cancer
Brain, kidney, and pancreatic cancer
Prostate, lung, and breast cancer
Skin, stomach, and liver cancer
oncology metastasis -
oncology symptoms
-
What is a common treatment for pathological fractures?
Antihistamines
Analgesics
Antibiotics
Antidepressants
medical treatment -
medical statistics
-
Which zone of the prostate is most commonly associated with carcinoma?
Transitional zone
Periurethral zone
Central zone
Peripheral zone
anatomy prostate -
What is a common symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
Severe pain
Weight loss
Nausea
Urinary obstruction
medical symptoms -
What is the typical age range for the highest incidence of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
By age 90
By age 80
By age 60
By age 30
medical age -
What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in Australia?
Prostatic carcinoma
Lung cancer
Breast cancer
Skin cancer
medical cancer -
What is the Gleason score used for?
Assessing kidney function
Staging of lung cancer
Evaluating liver disease
Grading of prostate carcinoma
medical grading -
What is the Gleason score based on?
Location of the tumour
Size of the tumour only
Dominant tumour nodule and second largest nodule
Patient's age
cancer prostate grading -
What is a common clinical feature of prostate carcinoma?
Severe pain
Elevated PSA
Weight gain
Frequent urination
cancer prostate clinical -
cancer psa diagnosis
-
What type of biopsy is used for prostate carcinoma diagnosis?
Bone biopsy
Trans-Rectal/Trans-Perineal Biopsy
Liver biopsy
Skin biopsy
cancer biopsy prostate -
What is a common symptom of urothelial carcinoma?
Severe abdominal pain
Fever
Painless haematuria
Nausea
cancer urothelial symptoms -
cancer urothelial locations
-
cancer risk_factors urothelial
-
What is a characteristic of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Tenderness upon examination
Smooth, enlarged, non-tender prostate gland
Irregular hard mass
Significant weight loss
bph prostate clinical -
What is a histological feature of prostate carcinoma?
Fibromuscular stroma
Disappearance of the basal layer
Presence of inflammation
Increased secretory layer
cancer prostate histology -
cancer diagnosis prostate
-
investigations psa
-
psa cancer
-
What is indicated by an osteosclerotic lesion at L4 vertebrae?
BPH
Prostatitis
Bone carcinoma (metastasis)
Normal bone structure
investigations bone -
What is a precursor to prostatic adenocarcinoma?
Prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia
Dysplasia
Prostatitis
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
prostate cancer -
What are the cytological features of prostatic adenocarcinoma?
Mitotic figures, increased N:C ratio, pleomorphism
Uniform cell shapes
Reduced N:C ratio
Normal cell structure
cancer cytology -
What is a common histological feature of papillary urothelial carcinoma?
Solid mass formation
Formation of large papillary structures
Necrotic areas
Absence of blood vessels
histology urothelial -
What is the common age group for testicular neoplasms?
25-40 years
40-50 years
15-25 years
50-60 years
testicular neoplasms -
testicular germ_cells
-
What is a common histological feature of seminoma?
Necrotic regions
Absence of lymphocytes
Irregular cell shapes
Large, round nuclei with distinct borders
seminoma histology -
What is the first-line management for suspected testicular malignancy?
Observation
Chemotherapy
Radical orchiectomy
Radiation therapy
management testicular -
prognosis testicular
-
What type of cells are Leidig/Sertoli cells associated with in sex cord stromal tumors?
Invasive
Aggressive
Generally benign
Malignant
oncology tumors -
What was the primary symptom of the 65-year-old man with Squamous Cell Carcinoma?
Chest pain
Worsening dyspnoea
Fever
Weight loss
oncology symptoms -
Which of the following is a differential diagnosis for lung cancer?
Asthma
Infection (TB)
Diabetes
Hypertension
oncology diagnosis -
What is a potential complication if the pleura is affected by lung cancer?
Pleuritic pain
Shortness of breath
Chest tightness
Coughing up blood
oncology complications -
What is a common characteristic of Small Cell Lung Carcinoma (SCLC)?
Better prognosis than NSCLC
Found in non-smokers
Strongly associated with smoking
Non-aggressive
oncology lung_cancer -
What does the presence of keratin pearls in histology indicate?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Lymphoma
Adenocarcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
histology cancer -
What is the first step in investigating lung lesions?
Physical examination
Blood tests
X-ray
Thoracic CT
investigations oncology -
oncology metastasis
-
What condition is indicated by low potassium in a patient with SCLC?
Dehydration
Kidney failure
Heart failure
Paraneoplastic syndrome
oncology symptoms -
What is a histological feature of adenocarcinoma?
Blue cells
Keratin pearls
Desmoplastic reaction
Glandular formation
histology cancer -
What histological feature is associated with small blue cells and increased N:C ratio?
Fibrosis
Neuroendocrine immunochemistry markers
Glandular structures with mucin
Desmoplastic reaction
histology neuroendocrine -
Where do adenocarcinomas typically occur in the lungs?
Lung periphery
Central region
Cardiac silhouette
Upper lobe
oncology adenocarcinoma -
What are potential primary tumors in a case of disseminated malignancy?
Pancreas, liver, skin
Thyroid, stomach, prostate
Breast, brain, ovary, uterine, lung, colorectal
Kidney, bladder, esophagus
oncology malignancy -
What is a common symptom of tubal ectopic pregnancy?
Lower right abdominal pain
Upper left abdominal pain
Severe headache
Chest pain
gynecology ectopic_pregnancy -
Which test is positive in ectopic pregnancy?
Serum B-HCG
CT scan
Pelvic ultrasound
Urine pregnancy test
gynecology diagnosis -
What can result from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?
Massive abdominal hemorrhage
Ovarian torsion
Normal pregnancy
Increased fertility
gynecology complications -
What is the common treatment for ectopic pregnancy?
Emergency Laparoscopy (salpingectomy)
Radiation therapy
Medication therapy
Observation
gynecology treatment -
What is the most common cause of pregnancy-related death in the 1st trimester?
Gestational diabetes
Preeclampsia
Miscarriage
Ectopic pregnancy
gynecology mortality -
What is a common complication of acute chronic salpingitis?
Ovarian cancer
Endometrial hyperplasia
Sepsis
Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
medical complications -
What are the clinical features of PID?
Fever, abdominal pain, abnormal vaginal discharge
Dysuria, weight gain, irregular periods
Fatigue, headache, back pain
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
medical pid -
What is the most significant area to get inflamed in salpingitis?
Fallopian tubes
Cervix
Ovaries
Uterus
medical salpingitis -
What test is used to diagnose chlamydia?
Urinalysis
PCR (nucleic amplification)
Blood test
Endometrial biopsy
medical diagnostics -
What is the appearance of the uterine tube in pyosalpinx?
Thin, smooth wall
Distorted, thickened wall coated with white purulent exudate
Hemorrhagic surface
Normal appearance
medical specimen -
medical endometriosis
-
medical risk_factors
-
medical diagnostics
-
What is the treatment for endometriosis?
Radiation therapy
Hormonal contraception
Antibiotics
Surgery only
medical treatment -
What is a common treatment for endometriosis?
Chemotherapy
Radiation therapy
Ablation
Hormone therapy
endometriosis treatment -
What is a symptom of cervical cancer?
Urethral discharge
Heavy menstrual bleeding
Post-coital bleeding
Menopause symptoms
cervical_cancer symptoms -
What is the most common type of cervical cancer?
Adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
cervical_cancer types -
What is the first step in cervical cancer screening?
Pelvic exam
Blood test
CT scan
Screening for HPV virus
cervical_cancer screening -
What is a common symptom of urethral Chlamydia infection?
Fever
Back pain
Urethral discharge
Abdominal pain
sti chlamydia -
What does a positive oxidase test indicate?
Presence of fungi
Presence of viruses
Presence of parasites
Presence of certain bacteria
diagnostics oxidase_test -
What antibiotic is commonly used to treat Chlamydia?
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
Vancomycin
Ciprofloxacin
treatment chlamydia -
urethral_discharge symptoms
-
What is the significance of a Gram stain showing no bacterial growth?
Chlamydia are obligate intracellular bacteria
Indicates a viral infection
Indicates a bacterial infection
Indicates a fungal infection
diagnostics chlamydia -
What type of cancer is most likely with abnormal discharge and bleeding during intercourse?
Ovarian cancer
Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
Uterine cancer
cervical_cancer diagnosis -
What is the most common cause of vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age?
Chlamydia
Trichomoniasis
Candidiasis
Bacterial vaginosis
health vaginal_discharge -
What is the treatment for Chlamydia Trachomatis?
Fluconazole
Doxycycline or azithromycin
Clindamycin
Metronidazole
health treatment -
Which symptom is associated with Chlamydia?
Itching
Post-coital bleeding
Thick white discharge
Fishy odor
health symptoms -
What is a protective factor against bacterial vaginosis?
Multiple sex partners
Antibiotics
Douching
Hormonal contraceptives
health risk_factors -
What is the common discharge characteristic of candidiasis?
Purulent discharge
Thin, gray discharge
Green, yellow discharge
Thick, white discharge
health candidiasis -
What is the most common species causing candidiasis?
Candida tropicalis
Candida krusei
Candida albicans
Candida glabrata
health candidiasis -
What is the recommended treatment for trichomoniasis?
Oral fluconazole
Topical clindamycin
Vaginal cream
Oral metronidazole
health trichomoniasis -
What is the diagnostic method for bacterial vaginosis?
Pap smear
Blood test
Urine test
Amsel’s criteria or pH dipstick
health diagnosis -
What is a common risk factor for bacterial vaginosis?
Circumcised male partners
Pregnancy
Multiple sex partners
Hormonal contraceptives
health risk_factors -
What should be advised after treatment for chlamydia?
Use condoms
Avoid alcohol
Regular check-ups
No sex for 7 days
health post-treatment -
What is the common cause of genital ulcer in Australia?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
HSV-1
Syphilis
Chlamydia trachomatis
health genital_ulcers -
What test is positive for Candida Albicans in a case of vaginal discharge?
Gram stain
Germ Tube Test
Culture on VCN
PCR for Chlamydia
health fungal_infections -
What is the treatment for vulvar irritation due to irritant contact dermatitis?
Avoid pads/panty liners
Topical antibiotics
Corticosteroid injections
Surgical intervention
health dermatitis -
What condition is characterized by vulvovaginal atrophy in menopausal women?
Chlamydia infection
Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause
Bacterial vaginosis
Vulvar cancer
health menopause -
What type of dermatitis is commonly associated with a family history of asthma?
Corticosteroid Dermatitis
Irritant Contact Dermatitis
Seborrheic Dermatitis
Atopic Dermatitis
health dermatitis -
What is the typical presentation of primary syphilis?
Swollen lymph nodes
Painless single erythematous ulcer
Rash on palms
Painful vesicles
health syphilis -
What is the usual response time for topical estrogens in Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause?
Quickly
Varies greatly
Not at all
Slowly
health menopause -
What is the typical recurrence rate for HSV genital ulcers?
1-2 recurrences a year
2-8 recurrences a year
10-12 recurrences a year
No recurrences
health genital_ulcers -
What is the main treatment for primary HSV infection?
Corticosteroids
Antibiotics
Surgery
Antivirals
health viral_infections -
What type of microscopy result is expected in a case of Chlamydia infection?
Gram negative cocci
Gram positive rods
Fungal growth
No bacterial growth
health chlamydia -
What is often misdiagnosed and can present with inguinal lymph nodes or rash on palms or soles of feet?
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
HIV
Chlamydia
syphilis diagnosis -
What is the initial screening test for HIV?
HIV p24 antigen
NAT
Immunoassay (ELISA/EIA or CLIA)
Western Blot
hiv testing -
What indicates active HIV infection and is usually positive post-infection day 17?
NAT
ELISA
HIV p24 antigen serology
Western Blot
hiv diagnosis -
Which opportunistic infection occurs when CD4 count is less than 50?
Toxoplasmosis
Candida albicans
CMV Retinitis
Aspergillosis
hiv opportunistic_infections -
What do hormonal contraceptives suppress to stop the release of FSH and LH?
Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
Adrenal hormones
Ovarian function
Thyroid hormones
contraception hormones -
What is a positive effect of estrogen in hormonal contraception?
Increased libido
Breast enlargement
Fluid retention
Lighter bleeding
contraception estrogen -
Which contraceptive method can cause irregular bleeding and may increase LDL levels?
Barrier methods
Estrogen
Copper IUD
Progesterone
contraception progesterone -
What do emergency contraceptive pills do?
Induce abortion
Thicken cervical mucus
Prevent implantation
Prevent ovulation
contraception emergency -
What does the gen receptor for oestrogens suppress?
FSH release
Progesterone release
LH release
Testosterone release
hormones receptors -
What is the main function of emergency contraceptive pills?
Enhance fertility
Used after unprotected sex
Prevent STIs
Increase ovulation
contraception emergency -
hormones contraception
-
What does the Copper IUD release to prevent fertilization?
Estrogens
Hormones
Copper ions
Spermicides
contraception iud -
What is the standard regimen for hormonal contraceptives?
30 days of hormonal contraceptives + 0 days of sugar pills
21 days of sugar pills + 7 days of hormonal contraceptives
14 days of hormonal contraceptives + 7 days of sugar pills
21 days of hormonal contraceptives + 7 days of sugar pills
contraception regimen -
health fibroids
-
What is the clinical presentation of an imperforate hymen?
Dysmenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea
Menorrhagia
Primary amenorrhea
health hymen -
What is Uterus Didelphys?
A hormonal disorder
A form of cancer
A rare congenital anomaly with two uterine cavities
A type of fibroid
health anatomy -
What triggers the LH surge in the endometrial cycle?
FSH surge
Testosterone surge
Oestrogen surge
Progesterone surge
hormones reproductive -
What is Turner Syndrome characterized by?
Partial or complete absence of one X chromosome
No X chromosome
Extra X chromosome
Extra Y chromosome
genetics syndromes -
What is Klinefelter's Syndrome?
Affects individuals with two Y chromosomes
Affects individuals with no Y chromosome
Affects females with missing X chromosome
Affects males with one or more extra X chromosomes
genetics syndromes -
What does Kallman’s syndrome combine?
Hypogonadism and hyperosmia
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia
Hypogonadotropic and hyperosmia
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anopsia
genetics conditions -
What is the role of Sertoli cells in sexual differentiation?
Inhibits follicle rupture
Stimulates oocyte development
Secretes androgens
Secretes MIS
embryology hormones -
What is Kallman’s syndrome a combination of?
5 alpha-reductase deficiency
Androgen insensitivity and testicular feminisation
Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anopsia or hyposmia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
genetics syndromes -
What does 5 alpha-reductase deficiency prevent the conversion of?
DHT to testosterone
Testosterone to estrogen
Estrogen to testosterone
DHT to progesterone
endocrinology deficiency -
What is the most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) due to?
17-hydroxylase deficiency
11-hydroxylase deficiency
5 alpha-reductase deficiency
21-hydroxylase deficiency
endocrinology cah -
What marks the onset of the first stage of labour?
Full dilation of cervix
Regular contractions
Delivery of placenta
Delivery of baby
obstetrics labour -
What occurs during the latent phase of the first stage of labour?
Crowning of the baby’s head
Active pushing phase
Delivery of the placenta
Effacement and dilatation of the cervix
obstetrics labour -
What is the duration of the second stage of labour in nulliparous women?
30 minutes
2 hours
4 hours
1 hour
obstetrics labour -
What is a common risk associated with a prolonged second stage of labour?
Fetal distress
Prolonged pregnancy
Increased maternal weight
Reduced uterine contractions
obstetrics labour -
What is defined as blood loss over 500mL postpartum?
Placental abruption
Postpartum haemorrhage
Gestational diabetes
Preterm labour
obstetrics complications -
What can lower the risk of postpartum haemorrhage?
Increased fluid intake
Immediate discharge
Prolonged labour
Controlled cord traction
obstetrics management -
What is the term for the angle of the fetus in relation to the mother and uterus?
Position
Attitude
Lie
Station
obstetrics fetal -
What happens to the baby’s head during normal labour as it reaches the pelvic outlet?
It rotates fully to face the anterior aspect
It turns sideways
It remains in a flexed position
It moves back to the transverse position
obstetrics labour -
What is the definition of tumHaemorrhage?
Blood loss over 1000mL
Blood loss during pregnancy
Blood loss over 500mL
Blood loss under 500mL
medical terminology -
Which of the following is a non-pharmacological method for managing labor?
Acupuncture
Morphine
Epidural
Nitric oxide
medical labor -
What percentage of clinical pregnancies may result in miscarriage?
Up to 50%
Up to 10%
Up to 30%
Up to 20%
medical pregnancy -
What is a common cause of miscarriage?
Poor diet
Chromosomal abnormality (aneuploidy)
Stress
Infection
medical pregnancy -
What is the recommended management for a complete miscarriage?
Medical management
Psychological support only
Surgical intervention
Immediate hospitalization
medical miscarriage -
What is a symptom of a molar pregnancy?
Dark brown to bright red vaginal bleeding
Loss of appetite
Severe abdominal pain
High fever
medical pregnancy -
How often should bHCG levels be monitored after D&C for molar pregnancy?
Weekly for 3 months
Every 2 weeks for 6 months
Monthly for 6 months
Only once after 1 month
medical molar_pregnancy -
medical molar_pregnancy
-
What is the common treatment for gestational trophoblastic disease?
Radiation therapy
Surgical intervention
Antibiotics
Chemotherapy (methotrexate)
medical trophoblastic_disease -
What defines recurrent miscarriage?
Three first trimester miscarriages in a row
Two first trimester miscarriages
One miscarriage in any trimester
Any second trimester loss
medical miscarriage -
What is a common investigation for uterine abnormalities in recurrent miscarriages?
Sonohysterography
Ultrasound
CT scan
MRI scan
miscarriage investigation -
What is a known cause of recurrent miscarriages related to maternal age?
Endometriosis
Cervical incompetence
Chromosomal aneuploidy
Uterine fibroids
miscarriage causes -
What is the management for antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy?
Antibiotics
Aspirin and clexane
Steroids
Insulin
miscarriage management -
What is the major cause of maternal morbidity in the first trimester?
Preeclampsia
Ectopic pregnancy
Gestational diabetes
Placenta previa
ectopic_pregnancy morbidity -
What is the clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy?
Frequent urination
Heavy bleeding
Severe back pain
Amenorrhoea and acute abdominal pain
ectopic_pregnancy symptoms -
What is the definitive surgical management for ectopic pregnancy?
Conservative management
Salpingostomy
Salpingectomy
Methotrexate
ectopic_pregnancy surgery -
What is required for termination of pregnancy beyond 22 weeks?
Approval from a hospital ethics board
Notification of the Ministry of Health
Agreement of two doctors
Consent from the patient
termination regulations -
What is a method of first trimester termination of pregnancy?
Dilation and curettage
Misoprostol
Mifepristone
Suction termination
termination methods -
What is a characteristic of placenta previa?
Painless bleeding
High blood pressure
Painful contractions
Severe abdominal pain
bleeding placenta_previa -
What defines severe pre-eclampsia?
Placenta previa
HELLP syndrome
Hyperemesis gravidarum
Gestational diabetes
preeclampsia syndrome -
What is the embryonic period in human development?
0-3 months
6-9 months
3-6 months
Beginning of 4th to end of 8th week
embryology development -
What is the timeline for gestational age calculation?
Count from conception
Count from fertilization
Count from ovulation
Count from last menstrual period
gestational_age calculation -
When does the fetal period begin?
At birth
Beginning of the third month
At conception
At the end of the second month
development fetal_period -
development embryology
-
What does a pregnancy test measure?
Alpha-Fetal protein (AFP)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Estrogen levels
Progesterone levels
diagnosis pregnancy -
What is the purpose of ultrasonography during pregnancy?
To perform genetic testing
To screen for diabetes
To measure hCG levels
To create an image of the fetus
diagnosis ultrasound -
What does an increase in Alpha-Fetal protein (AFP) suggest?
Neural tube defects
Down syndrome
Sex chromosome abnormalities
Trisomy 21
screening birth_defects -
diagnosis amniocentesis
-
What is a reason for performing an invasive approach for prenatal testing?
Low maternal age (<20 y/o)
Normal ultrasound results
Healthy family history
Advanced maternal age (>35 y/o)
diagnosis prenatal -
What genetic disorder is characterized by 45 XO?
Turner Syndrome
Trisomy 21
Down Syndrome
Klinefelter Syndrome
genetics birth_defects -
What is a common feature of Down Syndrome?
Flat nasal bridge
Short stature
Webbed neck
Upslanting palpebral fissures
genetics birth_defects -
environment birth_defects
-
What is a consequence of smoking during pregnancy?
Reduced prematurity
Higher IQ
Increased birth weight
Intrauterine growth restriction
environment smoking -
What syndrome is associated with craniofacial abnormalities due to alcohol exposure?
Trisomy 18
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Turner Syndrome
Down Syndrome
environment birth_defects -
What are craniofacial abnormalities associated with fetal alcohol syndrome?
Thin upper lip, elongated philtrum, short palpebral fissures
Wide upper lip, long philtrum, large palpebral fissures
Normal upper lip, normal philtrum, normal palpebral fissures
Flat upper lip, short philtrum, wide palpebral fissures
health syndromes -
What is a common symptom of rubella?
Increased heart rate
Thickening of the skin
Blueberry muffin rash
Swollen lymph nodes
health diseases -
What is thalidomide known to affect?
Neural tube formation
Limb bud outgrowth
Skin elasticity
Heart development
health drugs -
What is the treatment for teratoma when malignant?
Antibiotics
Physical therapy
Hormonal therapy
Chemotherapy/radiation
health tumors -
What is the condition characterized by inverted sides?
Anencephaly
Polydactyly
Situs inversus
Craniosynostosis
health anomalies -
What is a symptom of anencephaly?
Enlarged skull
Underdeveloped brain
Normal brain size
Overdeveloped brain
health neural -
What causes holoprosencephaly?
Failure of prosencephalon to split
Excessive growth of neural tissue
Inadequate blood supply to brain
Defective cranial suture closure
health development -
What is the treatment for cleft lip/palate syndrome?
Physical therapy
Surgery in the first year
No treatment needed
Medication
health conditions -
What is hypospadias?
Narrowed urethra
Opening in dorsal wall of penis
Enlarged prostate
Undescended testicles
health conditions -
What is the cause of Hirschsprung's Disease?
Infection of the intestines
Genetic mutation in muscle cells
Lack of innervation of intestine
Excessive innervation of intestine
health diseases -
What is a symptom of intestinal obstruction in newborns?
Skin rash
High fever
Swollen stomach
Excessive crying
medicine symptoms -
What is a common treatment for intestinal obstruction?
Physical therapy
Surgery to bypass or remove affected part of colon
Antibiotics
Radiation therapy
medicine treatment -
What is the first phase of fertilization?
Sperm activation
Fusion of oocyte and sperm cell membranes
Penetration of corona radiata
Penetration of zona pellucida
reproduction fertilization -
What does IVF stand for?
In vivo fertilization
Instant fertilization
In vitro fertilization
Internal fertilization
reproduction ivf -
What is the anterior-posterior axis also known as?
Left-Right Axis
Vertical Axis
Dorsoventral Axis
Craniocaudal Axis
development body_axes -
What is a critical period for teratogenesis?
Pre-implantation period
Fetal period (9 weeks - birth)
Organogenesis (2-8 weeks post-conception)
Postnatal period
medicine teratogens -
What can high doses of Lithium (> 900mg/day) cause during pregnancy?
Cleft lip/palate
Neural tube defects
Cardiac defects
Limb malformations
medicine teratogens -
What happens to GI absorption during pregnancy?
Decreased vomiting
No change in GI absorption
Increased GI absorption
Slower GI absorption/vomiting
medicine physiology -
Which drug category is considered safe during pregnancy?
Category B
Category D
Category C
Category A
medicine drug_safety -
What is the effect of molecular weight on drug transfer across the placenta?
MW<600 crosses placenta
MW>1000 crosses placenta
MW has no effect
MW<1000 does not cross
medicine pharmacology -
What is the ADEC category for drugs with inadequate studies in animals but show no evidence of harm in humans?
B3
D
C
B2
pharmacology pregnancy -
drugs pregnancy
-
What does Category C indicate regarding drug effects on human fetus?
Only reversible effects
No risk of malformations
Safe for all pregnancies
Harmful effects suspected without malformations
pharmacology pregnancy -
drugs pregnancy
-
What is the risk level of drugs in Category X?
Safe for use during pregnancy
Only reversible damage
High risk of permanent damage to fetus
No risk at all
pharmacology pregnancy -
Which of the following should be avoided during breastfeeding?
Chemotherapy drugs
Codeine
Labetalol
Acyclovir
breastfeeding drugs -
What is a key consideration for ADEC categorization?
All drugs in the same category are equally unsafe
Category B3 is not necessarily safer than C
Assigned after thorough evidence review
Stage of pregnancy is always considered
pharmacology pregnancy -
What should be done to minimize infant exposure during drug therapy?
Temporarily avoid breastfeeding
Choose drugs with low protein binding
Increase breastfeeding frequency
Use higher doses of drugs
breastfeeding pharmacology -
What is the general assumption for infant drug exposure?
< 5% is always harmful
< 10% of maternal dose is considered safe
50% is safe
All drugs are safe in small amounts
breastfeeding pharmacology -
teratogenic risk
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-
-