An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
4th freedom
2nd freedom
1st freedom
3rd freedom
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
4th freedom
2nd freedom
1st freedom
3rd freedom
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
Chicago convention 1944
Geneva convention 1936
Warzaw convention 1929
Geneva convention 1948
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
Chicago convention 1944
Geneva convention 1936
Warzaw convention 1929
Geneva convention 1948
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
Montreal
The Hague
Chicago
Warsaw
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
Montreal
The Hague
Chicago
Warsaw
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
approve new international airlines
develop principles and techniques for international aviation
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
approve new international airlines
develop principles and techniques for international aviation
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
the Council
the Air Navigation Commission
the Assembly
the Regional Air Navigation meeting
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
the Council
the Air Navigation Commission
the Assembly
the Regional Air Navigation meeting
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
binding for all airline companies with international traffic
binding for all member states
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
binding for all airline companies with international traffic
binding for all member states
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
operator's licence for international scheduled aviation
limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à-vis passenger and goods transported
the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
the security system at airports
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
operator's licence for international scheduled aviation
limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à-vis passenger and goods transported
the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
the security system at airports
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
2 months following the date ICAO is informed
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
2 months following the date ICAO is informed
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law:
may request such person to disembark
may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law:
may request such person to disembark
may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed:
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the member airline associations
to the local authorities
to the other Contracting States
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed:
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the member airline associations
to the local authorities
to the other Contracting States
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
the convention of Rome
the convention of Chicago
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Paris
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
the convention of Rome
the convention of Chicago
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Paris
"Cabotage" refers to:
a national air carrier,
domestic air services,
crop spraying
a flight above territorial waters,
"Cabotage" refers to:
a national air carrier,
domestic air services,
crop spraying
a flight above territorial waters,
The second freedom of the air is the:
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
right to overfly without landing
right to land for a technical stop
The second freedom of the air is the:
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
right to overfly without landing
right to land for a technical stop
The first freedom of the air is:
The right to overfly without landing.
The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
The right to land for a technical stop.
The first freedom of the air is:
The right to overfly without landing.
The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
The right to land for a technical stop.
The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is:
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Rome
the convention of Madrid
the convention of Warsaw
The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is:
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Rome
the convention of Madrid
the convention of Warsaw
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:
caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
the above convention does not deal with this item
only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:
caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
the above convention does not deal with this item
only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Hague Convention.
Warsaw Convention.
Tokyo Convention.
Montreal Convention.
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Hague Convention.
Warsaw Convention.
Tokyo Convention.
Montreal Convention.
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
the Tokyo Convention
the Rome Convention
the Paris Convention
the Warsaw Convention
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
the Tokyo Convention
the Rome Convention
the Paris Convention
the Warsaw Convention
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
the Chicago Convention
the Warsaw Convention
the Rome Convention
the Montreal Convention
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
the Chicago Convention
the Warsaw Convention
the Rome Convention
the Montreal Convention
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
four letter combinations beginning with Q
letters used for ICAO identification documents
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
four letter combinations beginning with Q
letters used for ICAO identification documents
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
The loading limitations shall include:
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and mass distributions
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
all limiting mass and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
The loading limitations shall include:
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and mass distributions
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
all limiting mass and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
the state of registry
the International Telecommunication Union
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
the state of registry
the International Telecommunication Union
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated:
to state of the operator
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated:
to state of the operator
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
the International Telecommunication Union
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
the state of registry only
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
the International Telecommunication Union
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
the state of registry only
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
TTT
FFF
LLL
RCC
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
TTT
FFF
LLL
RCC
Which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example:
RCC
XXX
LLL
DDD
Which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example:
RCC
XXX
LLL
DDD
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 60 centimetres
at least 50 centimetres
at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
at least 75 centimetres
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 60 centimetres
at least 50 centimetres
at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
at least 75 centimetres
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 40 centimetres
at least 30 centimetres
at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
at least 20 centimetres
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 40 centimetres
at least 30 centimetres
at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
at least 20 centimetres
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
15th of October the same year
31th of December the same year
30th of October the same year
30th of April the following year
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
15th of October the same year
31th of December the same year
30th of October the same year
30th of April the following year
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
Is only considered for PPL.
Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
Is only considered for PPL.
Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
Annex 4
Annex 1
Annex 3
Annex 2
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
Annex 4
Annex 1
Annex 3
Annex 2
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL:
With a CPL
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
With an ATPL
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL:
With a CPL
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
With an ATPL
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
1 year
2 years
5 years
6 months
The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is:
1 year
2 years
5 years
6 months
The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
16 years
21 years
17 years
18 years
The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is:
16 years
21 years
17 years
18 years
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is:
16 and 60 years
17 and 59 years
21 and 59 years
18 and 60 years
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is:
16 and 60 years
17 and 59 years
21 and 59 years
18 and 60 years
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
30
60
90
21
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
30
60
90
21
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21 days
after one calendar month of consecutive illness
After 21 days of consecutive 'illness'
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21 days
after one calendar month of consecutive illness
After 21 days of consecutive 'illness'
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
60% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
40% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
60% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
40% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
21 years of age
18 years of age
16 years of age
17 years of age
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
21 years of age
18 years of age
16 years of age
17 years of age
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold:
a current class I medical assessment
a current class III medical assessment
a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
a current class II medical assessment
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold:
a current class I medical assessment
a current class III medical assessment
a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
a current class II medical assessment
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
250 hours and 100 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
250 hours and 100 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
200 hours and 100 hours
250 hours and 10 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
200 hours and 100 hours
250 hours and 10 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1,500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1,500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating shall have completed hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively:
40 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 10 hours
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating shall have completed hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively:
40 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 10 hours
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
In the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
In the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
the licence is issued or renewed
the licence is issued or validated
the medical assessment is issued
the licence is delivered to the pilot
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
the licence is issued or renewed
the licence is issued or validated
the medical assessment is issued
the licence is delivered to the pilot
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization
c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion
d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization
c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion
d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
a) 12 months to 6 months
d) none of the answers are correct
b) 12 months to 3 months
c) 24 months to 12 months
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
a) 12 months to 6 months
d) none of the answers are correct
b) 12 months to 3 months
c) 24 months to 12 months
Type ratings shall be established
c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
d) all the answers are correct
a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
Type ratings shall be established
c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
d) all the answers are correct
a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a) Annex 1
c) Annex 11
b) Annex 2
d) Annex 12
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a) Annex 1
c) Annex 11
b) Annex 2
d) Annex 12
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains
a) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains
a) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
What is the validity period for a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots until the age of 30?
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
What is the validity period for a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots until the age of 30?
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
How long is a Class 2 medical certificate valid until the age of 50?
24 months until age of 50
12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40
12 months thereafter
How long is a Class 2 medical certificate valid until the age of 50?
24 months until age of 50
12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40
12 months thereafter
Which statement best describes the validity periods of Class 2 medical certificates for private pilots?
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
Which statement best describes the validity periods of Class 2 medical certificates for private pilots?
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
200 hours of flight time
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
200 hours of flight time
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
150 hours of flight time
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
two years
one year
Indefinitely
The period of validity of the licence.
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
two years
one year
Indefinitely
The period of validity of the licence.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
All self.-sustaining gliders.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
Of issue
Of the last medical certificate
Of the skill test
The application is received by the Authority.
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
Of issue
Of the last medical certificate
Of the skill test
The application is received by the Authority.
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
One year
Five years after licence issue.
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
Two years
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
One year
Five years after licence issue.
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
Two years
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required,
Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: not required
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required,
Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: not required
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Switching on and off three times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
Switching on and off three times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
Descend for landing
Descend
You land
Let down
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
Descend for landing
Descend
You land
Let down
Are you able to comply with the instructions received?
UNABLE TO COMPLY
CAN NOT
CAN NOT COMPLY
NOT POSSIBLE
Are you able to comply with the instructions received?
UNABLE TO COMPLY
CAN NOT
CAN NOT COMPLY
NOT POSSIBLE
What does a flashing red light from the control tower during an approach to land mean?
The airport is unsafe, do not land
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
What does a flashing red light from the control tower during an approach to land mean?
The airport is unsafe, do not land
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
other vehicles and pedestrians
other converging aircraft
aircraft taking off or about to take off
all vehicles moving on the apron except the 'follow me' vehicle
On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
other vehicles and pedestrians
other converging aircraft
aircraft taking off or about to take off
all vehicles moving on the apron except the 'follow me' vehicle
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
The aircraft owner
The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
The commander
The airliner operator
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
The aircraft owner
The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
The commander
The airliner operator
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
Emergency aircraft
VIP (Head of state) aircraft
Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
Military aircraft
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
Emergency aircraft
VIP (Head of state) aircraft
Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
Military aircraft
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'G' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'G' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
3%
5%
10%
2%
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
3%
5%
10%
2%
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode 'A':
7 000
7 500
7 700
7 600
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode 'A':
7 000
7 500
7 700
7 600
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'YOU MAY PROCEED'?
Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
Rocking the wings and flashing the navigation light.
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'YOU MAY PROCEED'?
Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
Rocking the wings and flashing the navigation light.
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by?
8
10.5.1.0 (94)
15
12
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by?
8
10.5.1.0 (94)
15
12
What is the minimum altitude for an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
What is the minimum altitude for an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
Which aircraft has the right of way when Aircraft 'A' is flying in VMC conditions with ATC clearance?
Aircraft 'A' if 'B' is on its right
Aircraft 'B' if 'A' is on its left
Aircraft 'B' regardless of the direction 'A' is approaching
Aircraft 'A' regardless of the direction which 'B' is approaching
Which aircraft has the right of way when Aircraft 'A' is flying in VMC conditions with ATC clearance?
Aircraft 'A' if 'B' is on its right
Aircraft 'B' if 'A' is on its left
Aircraft 'B' regardless of the direction 'A' is approaching
Aircraft 'A' regardless of the direction which 'B' is approaching
What action must be taken if a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
Inform the ATC unit immediately
What action must be taken if a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
Inform the ATC unit immediately
In case of an emergency causing deviation from ATC clearance, what must the pilot do?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
Squawk 7700
Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
In case of an emergency causing deviation from ATC clearance, what must the pilot do?
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
Squawk 7700
Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
What signal does a signalman use to ask the pilot to apply parking brakes?
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
Crossing arms extended above his head
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
What signal does a signalman use to ask the pilot to apply parking brakes?
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
Crossing arms extended above his head
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
What should an aircraft do if it loses radiocommunications while flying IFR in clear visibility?
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
What should an aircraft do if it loses radiocommunications while flying IFR in clear visibility?
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
What does a red flare signal indicate to a flying aircraft?
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
Come back and land.
What does a red flare signal indicate to a flying aircraft?
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
Come back and land.
What is required for aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace?
Need to file a flight plan
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
What is required for aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace?
Need to file a flight plan
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
When must ATC be informed of a deviation if a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its flight plan?
Of an emergency.
It is a deviation from the track.
The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
When must ATC be informed of a deviation if a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its flight plan?
Of an emergency.
It is a deviation from the track.
The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
What is the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain for IFR flight?
At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
What is the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain for IFR flight?
At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways,
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways,
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
no options provided
no correct answer indicated
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
no options provided
no correct answer indicated
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds
No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds
No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Select A7600 and continue according to your current flight plan to destination
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Select A7600 and continue according to your current flight plan to destination
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should:
follow ATC instructions
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
request ATC for other instructions
select code A7500 on your transponder
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should:
follow ATC instructions
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
request ATC for other instructions
select code A7500 on your transponder
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
must land immediately and clear the landing area
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time
must give way to another aircraft
is cleared to land
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
must land immediately and clear the landing area
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time
must give way to another aircraft
is cleared to land
Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
FL 30 or 100 ft AGL
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000 ft AGL
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL
FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL
Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
FL 30 or 100 ft AGL
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000 ft AGL
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL
FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
Fly the emergency triangle
As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order to minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
Declare an emergency
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
Fly the emergency triangle
As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order to minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
Declare an emergency
While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
may continue to taxi to the take-off area
must stop
must return to its point of departure
must vacate the landing area in use
While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
may continue to taxi to the take-off area
must stop
must return to its point of departure
must vacate the landing area in use
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
may continue to taxi towards the take-off area
must stop
must return to its point of departure
is cleared for take-off
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
may continue to taxi towards the take-off area
must stop
must return to its point of departure
is cleared for take-off
An aircraft maneuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions
give way to another aircraft
not land because the airport is not available for landing
An aircraft maneuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions
give way to another aircraft
not land because the airport is not available for landing
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.
Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstruction in surface.
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.
Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstruction in surface.
What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Depature end of runway.
What does the abbreviation DER mean?
Depature end of runway.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
30 NM
10 NM
15 NM
25 NM
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
30 NM
10 NM
15 NM
25 NM
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.
ATC requirements.
Airspace restrictions.
Navigation aids.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
The terrain surrounding the airport.
ATC requirements.
Airspace restrictions.
Navigation aids.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0.8% gradient.
3.3% gradient.
0 ft.
35 ft.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
0.8% gradient.
3.3% gradient.
0 ft.
35 ft.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within:
15°.
30°.
45°.
12.5°.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within:
15°.
30°.
45°.
12.5°.
Turning departures provide track guidance within:
20 Km
5 Km
10 Km
15 Km
Turning departures provide track guidance within:
20 Km
5 Km
10 Km
15 Km
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:
25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:
25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
300m (984 ft).
450m (1476 ft).
600m (1968 ft).
150m (492 ft).
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
300m (984 ft).
450m (1476 ft).
600m (1968 ft).
150m (492 ft).
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
Initial approach segment.
Arrival segment.
Intermediate approach segment.
Final approach segment.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
Initial approach segment.
Arrival segment.
Intermediate approach segment.
Final approach segment.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
touchdown zone.
FAP.
initiation point.
FAF.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
touchdown zone.
FAP.
initiation point.
FAF.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
d) When seems possible to land
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
d) When seems possible to land
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
c) Reversal procedure
d) Race track
b) Procedure turn
a) Base turn
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
c) Reversal procedure
d) Race track
b) Procedure turn
a) Base turn
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
b) Aerodrome reference point.
d) Aerodrome elevation.
a) Mean sea level.
c) Relevant runway threshold.
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
b) Aerodrome reference point.
d) Aerodrome elevation.
a) Mean sea level.
c) Relevant runway threshold.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
c) Race track.
b) Base turn.
a) Procedure turn.
d) Reversal track.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
c) Race track.
b) Base turn.
a) Procedure turn.
d) Reversal track.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:
a) 1, 2, 3.
c) 2, 3.
b) 1, 2.
d) 1, 3.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:
a) 1, 2, 3.
c) 2, 3.
b) 1, 2.
d) 1, 3.
During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
a) 135 kt
b) 120 kt
d) 150 kt
c) 125 kt
During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
a) 135 kt
b) 120 kt
d) 150 kt
c) 125 kt
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 3 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
b) 1 minute.
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 3 minutes.
c) 2 minutes.
b) 1 minute.
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
c) 4.
b) 3.
d) Up to 4.
a) Up to 5.
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
c) 4.
b) 3.
d) Up to 4.
a) Up to 5.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
a) At the IAF.
b) At the IF.
d) At the final en-route fix.
c) At the FAF.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
a) At the IAF.
b) At the IF.
d) At the final en-route fix.
c) At the FAF.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
300m (984 ft).
150m (492 ft).
At least 300m (984 ft).
At least 150m (492 ft).
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
300m (984 ft).
150m (492 ft).
At least 300m (984 ft).
At least 150m (492 ft).
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
1 minute 15 seconds.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
1 minute 15 seconds.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
2 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
2 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Shuttle.
Based turn.
Racetrack pattern.
Procedure turn.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Shuttle.
Based turn.
Racetrack pattern.
Procedure turn.
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
One scale deflection.
One and a half of scale deflection.
A quarter of scale deflection.
Half a scale deflection.
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
One scale deflection.
One and a half of scale deflection.
A quarter of scale deflection.
Half a scale deflection.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
9m.
3m.
12m.
6m.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
9m.
3m.
12m.
6m.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial and final.
Arrival, intermediate and final.
Initial, intermediate and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial and final.
Arrival, intermediate and final.
Initial, intermediate and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
5%.
2.5%.
3.3%.
0.8%.
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
5%.
2.5%.
3.3%.
0.8%.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where the climb is established.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the missed approach point.
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the point where the climb is established.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the missed approach point.
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Visual approach.
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
Contact approach.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Visual approach.
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
Contact approach.
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
Permits circling only in VMC.
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
Permits circling only in VMC.
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
For which categories of aircraft does this regulation apply?
Only for categories A and B aircraft.
Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
For which categories of aircraft does this regulation apply?
Only for categories A and B aircraft.
Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
What is a circling approach?
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A contact flight manoeuvre.
What is a circling approach?
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A contact flight manoeuvre.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what should the pilot do?
Make an initial climbing turn towards the final missed approach track.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the MAP.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the FAF.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what should the pilot do?
Make an initial climbing turn towards the final missed approach track.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the MAP.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the FAF.
What actions should be taken if contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre?
Initiate a missed approach
Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact.
If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact.
Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude.
What actions should be taken if contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre?
Initiate a missed approach
Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact.
If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact.
Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude.
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg?
Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome.
Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude.
Request an amended clearance.
Initiate a missed approach
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg?
Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome.
Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude.
Request an amended clearance.
Initiate a missed approach
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than:
Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
Half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centerline.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than:
Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
Half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centerline.
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
The operator
The state
The flight-operations of the company
The pilot-in-command
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
The operator
The state
The flight-operations of the company
The pilot-in-command
On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
40 degrees or less
30 degrees or less
20 degrees or less
10 degrees or less
On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
40 degrees or less
30 degrees or less
20 degrees or less
10 degrees or less
What is the normally applicable maximum descent gradient in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance?
5%
8%
7%
6.5%
What is the normally applicable maximum descent gradient in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance?
5%
8%
7%
6.5%
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
The first part of the segment.
The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum.
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
The first part of the segment.
The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum.
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least:
984 ft
492 ft
1476 ft
Decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least:
984 ft
492 ft
1476 ft
Decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to:
300 m (984 ft)
120 m (394 ft)
210 m (690 ft)
150 m (492 ft)
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to:
300 m (984 ft)
120 m (394 ft)
210 m (690 ft)
150 m (492 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
40 m (131 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
70 m (230 ft)
30 m (98 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
40 m (131 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
70 m (230 ft)
30 m (98 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is:
30 m (98 ft)
120 m (384 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is:
30 m (98 ft)
120 m (384 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
20 NM
5 NM
10 NM
25 NM
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
20 NM
5 NM
10 NM
25 NM
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is:
± 5 NM
± 2.5 NM
± 12.5 NM
± 10 NM
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is:
± 5 NM
± 2.5 NM
± 12.5 NM
± 10 NM
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
200 ft
350 ft
400 ft
the OCH
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
200 ft
350 ft
400 ft
the OCH
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
150 ft
100 ft
200 ft
250 ft
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
150 ft
100 ft
200 ft
250 ft
A 'precision approach' is a direct instrument approach:
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
A 'precision approach' is a direct instrument approach:
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
5%
2%
3.3%
2.5%
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
5%
2%
3.3%
2.5%
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
maximum bank angle of 25°.
rate of 3°per second.
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
maximum bank angle of 25°.
rate of 3°per second.
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
230 kt IAS.
230 kt TAS.
240 kt IAS.
240 kt TAS.
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
230 kt IAS.
230 kt TAS.
240 kt IAS.
240 kt TAS.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the left.
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
First right and then to the left.
To the right.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the left.
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
First right and then to the left.
To the right.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute
2 minutes
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
1 minute
2 minutes
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
Parallel.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
Off set.
Direct.
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
Parallel.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
Off set.
Direct.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
2 minutes.
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes 30 seconds.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
2 minutes.
1 minute.
1 minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes 30 seconds.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Course.
Track.
Heading.
Bearing.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Course.
Track.
Heading.
Bearing.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
5°.
20°.
10°.
15°.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
5°.
20°.
10°.
15°.
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
5 NM.
5 km.
3 km.
3 NM.
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
5 NM.
5 km.
3 km.
3 NM.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
To the left.
In a direction depending on the entry,
To the right.
In a direction depending on the wind direction.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
To the left.
In a direction depending on the entry,
To the right.
In a direction depending on the wind direction.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?
Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?
Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
Transition level.
Transition layer.
Transition altitude.
The level specified by ATC.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
Transition level.
Transition layer.
Transition altitude.
The level specified by ATC.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
1500 ft.
1000 ft.
3000 ft.
2500 ft.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
1500 ft.
1000 ft.
3000 ft.
2500 ft.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
According pilot's choice.
As height.
As altitude.
As flight level.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
According pilot's choice.
As height.
As altitude.
As flight level.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported:
As altitude.
As height.
As flight level.
According to pilot's choice.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported:
As altitude.
As height.
As flight level.
According to pilot's choice.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
Flight level during descent.
Altitude above mean sea level during climb.
Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb.
Altitude above mean sea level during descent.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
Flight level during descent.
Altitude above mean sea level during climb.
Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb.
Altitude above mean sea level during descent.
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
Only at transition level.
Only at transition altitude.
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
Only at transition level.
Only at transition altitude.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
flight level on or below the transition level
altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
flight level on or below the transition altitude
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
flight level on or below the transition level
altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
flight level on or below the transition altitude
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing the transition level
Within the transition layer
When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
When passing the transition altitude
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing the transition level
Within the transition layer
When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
When passing the transition altitude
The transition level:
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
is calculated and decided by the commander
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
The transition level:
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
is calculated and decided by the commander
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode A code 7600
Mode A code 7700
Mode B code 7600
Mode A code 7500
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode A code 7600
Mode A code 7700
Mode B code 7600
Mode A code 7500
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
Only when directed by ATC.
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
Only when directed by ATC.
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
2000
7500
7700
7600
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
2000
7500
7700
7600
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
7500
7700
7600
7000
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
7500
7700
7600
7000
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
They operate within controlled airspace.
They operate a transponder with Mode C.
They operate within non controlled airspace.
Requested by ATC.
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
They operate within controlled airspace.
They operate a transponder with Mode C.
They operate within non controlled airspace.
Requested by ATC.
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
Use only the word WILCO.
Read back the mode and code to be set.
Read back only the code to be set.
Use only the word ROGER.
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
Use only the word WILCO.
Read back the mode and code to be set.
Read back only the code to be set.
Use only the word ROGER.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:
A 7620 Mode C
A 7600 Mode C
A 5300 Mode C
A 0020 Mode C
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:
A 7620 Mode C
A 7600 Mode C
A 5300 Mode C
A 0020 Mode C
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:
the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:
the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
Control zone.
Flight Information Region.
Control area.
Advisory airspace.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
Control zone.
Flight Information Region.
Control area.
Advisory airspace.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control area.
Air traffic zone.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Control area.
Air traffic zone.
Control zone.
Advisory airspace.
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Class B.
Class D.
Class A.
Class E.
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Class B.
Class D.
Class A.
Class E.
Aerodrome traffic is:
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
Aerodrome traffic is:
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
Air Traffic Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
Air Traffic Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is:
An En-Route Meteo Report.
A SIGMET information.
An AIRMET information.
A NOTAM.
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is:
An En-Route Meteo Report.
A SIGMET information.
An AIRMET information.
A NOTAM.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 14.
Annex 11.
Annex 6.
Annex 17.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 14.
Annex 11.
Annex 6.
Annex 17.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Flight Information Service only.
Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Flight Information Service only.
Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending.
What is the height measured from the earth to be considered in this context?
1000 feet
500 feet
1500 feet
2000 feet
What is the height measured from the earth to be considered in this context?
1000 feet
500 feet
1500 feet
2000 feet
Which organization establishes international aviation standards?
ICAO
FAA
ICA
NTSB
Which organization establishes international aviation standards?
ICAO
FAA
ICA
NTSB
What do freedom of air rights refer to?
Definitions of air traffic rights
Passenger comfort regulations
Fuel efficiency standards
Pilot training protocols
What do freedom of air rights refer to?
Definitions of air traffic rights
Passenger comfort regulations
Fuel efficiency standards
Pilot training protocols
What is a primary responsibility of air traffic control?
Maintaining safe aircraft separation
Conducting flight tests
Monitoring weather patterns
Calculating aircraft speeds
What is a primary responsibility of air traffic control?
Maintaining safe aircraft separation
Conducting flight tests
Monitoring weather patterns
Calculating aircraft speeds
What regulations must pilots comply with regarding health?
Training regulations
Medical regulations
Flight plan regulations
Weather guidelines
What regulations must pilots comply with regarding health?
Training regulations
Medical regulations
Flight plan regulations
Weather guidelines
What are the correct emergency signal codes used for?
Navigating flight paths
Communicating urgent situations
Initiating takeoff procedures
Coordinating refueling
What are the correct emergency signal codes used for?
Navigating flight paths
Communicating urgent situations
Initiating takeoff procedures
Coordinating refueling
What does a cargo manifest protocol ensure?
Flight availability
Passenger listings
Accurate cargo documentation
Aircraft maintenance schedules
What does a cargo manifest protocol ensure?
Flight availability
Passenger listings
Accurate cargo documentation
Aircraft maintenance schedules
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
150 metres.
200 metres.
500 metres.
300 metres.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
150 metres.
200 metres.
500 metres.
300 metres.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.
An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.
An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,
The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,
The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,
The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,
The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.
a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
a clearance is required.
two way radiocommunication is not required.
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.
a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
a clearance is required.
two way radiocommunication is not required.
An air traffic control unit:
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
An air traffic control unit:
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
automatically at the control zone boundary.
through a central control unit.
with the pilot's consent.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
automatically at the control zone boundary.
through a central control unit.
with the pilot's consent.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
Concerning RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of:
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
Concerning RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of:
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
Recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:
15 seconds of UTC at all times
30 seconds of UTC at all times
10 seconds of UTC at all times
1 minute of UTC at all times
Recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:
15 seconds of UTC at all times
30 seconds of UTC at all times
10 seconds of UTC at all times
1 minute of UTC at all times
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
100 NM or more
60 NM or more
50 NM or more
75 NM or more
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
100 NM or more
60 NM or more
50 NM or more
75 NM or more
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
by regional air navigation agreements
by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
by regional air navigation agreements
by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
240 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
240 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
250 KT IAS
240 KT IAS
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
250 KT IAS
240 KT IAS
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
260 KT IAS
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
250 KT IAS
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
260 KT IAS
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
250 KT IAS
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
Not applicable
260 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
Not applicable
260 KT IAS
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
Airspace D
Airspace C
Airspace B
Airspace E
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
Airspace D
Airspace C
Airspace B
Airspace E
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Airspace B
Airspace D
Airspace E
Airspace C
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Airspace B
Airspace D
Airspace E
Airspace C
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
Airspace B
Airspace A
Airspace D
Airspace E
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
Airspace B
Airspace A
Airspace D
Airspace E
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as:
Airspace E
Airspace B
Airspace D
Airspace A
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as:
Airspace E
Airspace B
Airspace D
Airspace A
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified:
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace F
Airspace G
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified:
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace F
Airspace G
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as:
Airspace E
Airspace C
Airspace F
Airspace G
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as:
Airspace E
Airspace C
Airspace F
Airspace G
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between IFR flights
Providing flight Information Service
Achieving separation between controlled flights
Providing advisory service
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between IFR flights
Providing flight Information Service
Achieving separation between controlled flights
Providing advisory service
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Providing alerting services
Achieving separation between controlled flights
Providing flight Information Service
Providing advisory services
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Providing alerting services
Achieving separation between controlled flights
Providing flight Information Service
Providing advisory services
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
Do not take off before 0920
The take off clearance is expected at 0920
After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
Do not take off before 0920
The take off clearance is expected at 0920
After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
3 minutes.
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
3 minutes.
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
15 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
15 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
15 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
3 minutes.
6 minutes.
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
3 minutes.
6 minutes.
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
2 minutes.
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
2 minutes.
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided?
10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided?
10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME is?
20 NM.
20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
5 NM.
10 NM.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME is?
20 NM.
20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
5 NM.
10 NM.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft?
2 km.
6 NM.
10 km.
3 NM.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft?
2 km.
6 NM.
10 km.
3 NM.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed?
2 minutes.
1 minute.
30 seconds.
3 minutes.
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed?
2 minutes.
1 minute.
30 seconds.
3 minutes.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated?
immediately a significant change occurs.
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change.
as prescribed by the state.
as prescribed by the meteorological office.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated?
immediately a significant change occurs.
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change.
as prescribed by the state.
as prescribed by the meteorological office.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of?
the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).
the unit as prescribed by the states.
both air traffic services and the meteorological office.
the air traffic services.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of?
the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).
the unit as prescribed by the states.
both air traffic services and the meteorological office.
the air traffic services.
ATIS broadcast?
Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR.
Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR.
Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.
ATIS broadcast?
Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR.
Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR.
Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes?
A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
F only.
F and G only.
C, D, E, F, and G.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes?
A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
F only.
F and G only.
C, D, E, F, and G.
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes?
A to G (inclusive).
C to G (inclusive).
F and G.
A to E (inclusive).
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes?
A to G (inclusive).
C to G (inclusive).
F and G.
A to E (inclusive).
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover when the clouds are?
below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 1 500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 1 000 m (3,500 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover when the clouds are?
below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 1 500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 1 000 m (3,500 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
operational air traffic control centres
flight information or control organisations
search and rescue co-ordination centres
air traffic co-ordination services
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
operational air traffic control centres
flight information or control organisations
search and rescue co-ordination centres
air traffic co-ordination services
The Alerting Service is provided by:
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
Only by ATC units.
The Area Control Centres.
The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
The Alerting Service is provided by:
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
Only by ATC units.
The Area Control Centres.
The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received.
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this,
The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received.
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this,
The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
air traffic control and flight information centers.
search and rescue coordination centres.
control centres only.
air traffic coordination centres.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
air traffic control and flight information centers.
search and rescue coordination centres.
control centres only.
air traffic coordination centres.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:
25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:
25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:
limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:
limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
What is the minimum CEU (flow control centre) for international flights?
5 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes for international flights
15 minutes
What is the minimum CEU (flow control centre) for international flights?
5 minutes
10 minutes
10 minutes for international flights
15 minutes
What is the CEU for a controlled flight?
5 minutes
depends on the type of flight
10 minutes
15 minutes
What is the CEU for a controlled flight?
5 minutes
depends on the type of flight
10 minutes
15 minutes
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
60 minutes prior to departure
10 minutes prior to departure
15 minutes
5 minutes
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
60 minutes prior to departure
10 minutes prior to departure
15 minutes
5 minutes
What is the CEU for domestic flights?
5 minutes for domestic flights
10 minutes
15 minutes
depends on the type of flight
What is the CEU for domestic flights?
5 minutes for domestic flights
10 minutes
15 minutes
depends on the type of flight
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.
The pilot in command of an aircraft:
a) 05-Mar
c) 1-4
b) 2003-04-05
d) 2002-03-05
The pilot in command of an aircraft:
a) 05-Mar
c) 1-4
b) 2003-04-05
d) 2002-03-05
A strayed aircraft is:
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
A strayed aircraft is:
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima.
a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
c) All IFR flights.
d) Only controlled IFR flights.
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima.
a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
c) All IFR flights.
d) Only controlled IFR flights.
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
d) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
a) 1 and 4
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
d) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
a) 1 and 4
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level.
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level.
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
The ATC.
The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
The aircraft operator.
The pilot in command.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
The ATC.
The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
The aircraft operator.
The pilot in command.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
Z
I
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
Z
I
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
V
Z
Y
I
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
V
Z
Y
I
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
Read back should be unsolicited.
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
Read back should be unsolicited.
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
as instructed by an air traffic control unit
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
as instructed by an air traffic control unit
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time,
weather noted,
flight identification and weather noted,
urgent messages
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time,
weather noted,
flight identification and weather noted,
urgent messages
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
7 000 kg.
5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
14 000 kg.
20 000 kg.
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
7 000 kg.
5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
14 000 kg.
20 000 kg.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
true air speed (TAS).
indicated air speed (IAS).
true air speed at 65% power.
estimated ground speed (G/S).
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
true air speed (TAS).
indicated air speed (IAS).
true air speed at 65% power.
estimated ground speed (G/S).
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
Return to the aerodrome of departure.
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
Return to the aerodrome of departure.
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the fix.
At least 60° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the fix.
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the fix.
At least 60° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the fix.
What is the minimum degree separation required from the FIX?
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the FIX.
What is the minimum degree separation required from the FIX?
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the FIX.
What should a pilot do if an ATC clearance is not suitable?
He has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan.
He should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
He must ignore the ATC clearance.
What should a pilot do if an ATC clearance is not suitable?
He has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan.
He should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
He must ignore the ATC clearance.
When is the 'VMC and own separation' ATC clearance used?
Requested by the pilot and during day light.
Requested by the pilot only.
Requested at night.
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
When is the 'VMC and own separation' ATC clearance used?
Requested by the pilot and during day light.
Requested by the pilot only.
Requested at night.
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
What is the standard execution for turns requested by a radar controller?
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
Depends on weather conditions.
Decided on pilot's discretion.
What is the standard execution for turns requested by a radar controller?
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
Depends on weather conditions.
Decided on pilot's discretion.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
Vertical and longitudinal separation only.
Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
Only composite separation.
Horizontal, longitudinal and lateral separation.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
Vertical and longitudinal separation only.
Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
Only composite separation.
Horizontal, longitudinal and lateral separation.
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum below FL 290?
1000 feet (300 m).
500 feet (150 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum below FL 290?
1000 feet (300 m).
500 feet (150 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
2500 feet (750 m).
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum above FL 290?
500 feet (150 m).
4000 feet (1200 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum above FL 290?
500 feet (150 m).
4000 feet (1200 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
What track separation is required between aircraft using the same VOR?
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the facility.
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
What track separation is required between aircraft using the same VOR?
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the facility.
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
What should you do if you cannot establish radio communication after a turn instruction?
With an intercept of at least 30°.
On the nearest way.
With an intercept of 20° or more.
With an intercept of at least 45°.
What should you do if you cannot establish radio communication after a turn instruction?
With an intercept of at least 30°.
On the nearest way.
With an intercept of 20° or more.
With an intercept of at least 45°.
What is the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction above FL 290?
2000 feet.
1500 feet.
3000 feet.
4000 feet.
What is the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction above FL 290?
2000 feet.
1500 feet.
3000 feet.
4000 feet.
What distance is the longitudinal separation minima using DME?
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
What distance is the longitudinal separation minima using DME?
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
What is the minimum for RNAV distance based separation?
20 NM.
80 NM.
60 NM.
50 NM.
What is the minimum for RNAV distance based separation?
20 NM.
80 NM.
60 NM.
50 NM.
When does a VFR flight constitute essential traffic to other VFR flights?
When flying below 1000 feet.
When operating in controlled airspace.
When operating without a flight plan.
When flying above FL 290.
When does a VFR flight constitute essential traffic to other VFR flights?
When flying below 1000 feet.
When operating in controlled airspace.
When operating without a flight plan.
When flying above FL 290.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
45° immediately after take-off.
15° immediately after take-off.
30° immediately after take-off.
25° immediately after take-off.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
45° immediately after take-off.
15° immediately after take-off.
30° immediately after take-off.
25° immediately after take-off.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
Reduced separation
Essential separation
Composite separation
Combined separation
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
Reduced separation
Essential separation
Composite separation
Combined separation
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
2000 feet
1500 feet
500 feet
1000 feet
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
2000 feet
1500 feet
500 feet
1000 feet
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
only in airspace class A
When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
Above the transition altitude when applicable
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
only in airspace class A
When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
Above the transition altitude when applicable
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible:
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
Only when leaving controlled airspace
If the commander so requests
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible:
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
Only when leaving controlled airspace
If the commander so requests
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend:
12 NM
10 NM
20 NM
15 NM
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend:
12 NM
10 NM
20 NM
15 NM
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, the distance for RNAV distance based separation minimum in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum is:
60 NM
100 NM
80 NM
70 NM
When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, the distance for RNAV distance based separation minimum in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum is:
60 NM
100 NM
80 NM
70 NM
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track is:
20 NM
40 NM
10 NM
25 NM
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track is:
20 NM
40 NM
10 NM
25 NM
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level will be:
10 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
2 minutes
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level will be:
10 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
2 minutes
What is the longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed?
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
What is the longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed?
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility?
25 NM (46 km)
30 NM (55 km)
15 NM (28 km)
20 NM (37 km)
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility?
25 NM (46 km)
30 NM (55 km)
15 NM (28 km)
20 NM (37 km)
In a visual approach, which condition is required?
During IFR and VFR flights in VMC
During IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
In addition, visibility should be 5.5 km or more
During IFR flights, cloudbase is 1000 ft above the appropriate DA or MDA
In a visual approach, which condition is required?
During IFR and VFR flights in VMC
During IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
In addition, visibility should be 5.5 km or more
During IFR flights, cloudbase is 1000 ft above the appropriate DA or MDA
What should a pilot do before penetrating IMC conditions with a low ceiling during take-off?
When advised by Tower
When clear of the airport
After take-off
Contact departure control before penetrating the clouds
What should a pilot do before penetrating IMC conditions with a low ceiling during take-off?
When advised by Tower
When clear of the airport
After take-off
Contact departure control before penetrating the clouds
During a visual approach in controlled airspace, who applies separation with other traffic?
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
ATC will apply separation only with IFR-traffic
The pilot to apply separation
During a visual approach in controlled airspace, who applies separation with other traffic?
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
ATC will apply separation only with IFR-traffic
The pilot to apply separation
When is the EAT transmitted to the pilot in case of expected delay?
20 minutes
15 minutes or more
5 minutes or more
10 minutes
When is the EAT transmitted to the pilot in case of expected delay?
20 minutes
15 minutes or more
5 minutes or more
10 minutes
On how many occasions should RPLs not be used for flights operated regularly?
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
On at least 20 occasions
On at least 20 days consecutively
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of 20 consecutive days
On how many occasions should RPLs not be used for flights operated regularly?
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
On at least 20 occasions
On at least 20 days consecutively
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of 20 consecutive days
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in approach, when may a departing aircraft take off?
Until three minutes
Until ten minutes
Until two minutes
Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in approach, when may a departing aircraft take off?
Until three minutes
Until ten minutes
Until two minutes
Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
At the discretion of the air traffic controller
If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
At the discretion of the air traffic controller
If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions:
The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
The approach must be passing the FAF
Continued approach will be according to VFR
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions:
The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
The approach must be passing the FAF
Continued approach will be according to VFR
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
3 KT
5 KT
10 KT
8 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
3 KT
5 KT
10 KT
8 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
3 KT
5 KT
2 KT
4 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
3 KT
5 KT
2 KT
4 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
4 KT
5 KT
8 KT
10 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
4 KT
5 KT
8 KT
10 KT
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
the radar controller.
the pilot in command.
the airport controller.
the approach controller.
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
the radar controller.
the pilot in command.
the airport controller.
the approach controller.
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
150 m (500 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
100 m (330 ft)
200 m (660 ft)
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
150 m (500 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
100 m (330 ft)
200 m (660 ft)
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
3.0 NM
2.0 NM
1.0 NM
5.0 NM
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
3.0 NM
2.0 NM
1.0 NM
5.0 NM
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
15 degrees
25 degrees
20 degrees
30 degrees
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
15 degrees
25 degrees
20 degrees
30 degrees
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
What is established between extended runway center lines as depicted on the radar display?
900 m
800 m
710 m
600 m
What is established between extended runway center lines as depicted on the radar display?
900 m
800 m
710 m
600 m
What is the minimum distance that an aircraft should be established on the ILS localizer course prior to intercepting the glide path?
2.5 NM
2.0 NM
1.5 NM
3.0 NM
What is the minimum distance that an aircraft should be established on the ILS localizer course prior to intercepting the glide path?
2.5 NM
2.0 NM
1.5 NM
3.0 NM
What is the required angular divergence for missed approach tracks in dependent parallel approaches?
15°
30°
25°
45°
What is the required angular divergence for missed approach tracks in dependent parallel approaches?
15°
30°
25°
45°
When a runway is 2,000 metres in length, how close may aircraft be held to the runway in use?
45 metres.
50 metres.
60 metres.
30 metres.
When a runway is 2,000 metres in length, how close may aircraft be held to the runway in use?
45 metres.
50 metres.
60 metres.
30 metres.
Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.
Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller.
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area.
An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable.
Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.
Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller.
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area.
An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes.
An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control.
During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes.
An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control.
During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation.
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is?
Medium/poor
Medium
Poor
Good
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is?
Medium/poor
Medium
Poor
Good
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft?
At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft?
At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than how many meters?
1,800 metres.
1,000 metres.
1,200 metres.
1,500 metres.
Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than how many meters?
1,800 metres.
1,000 metres.
1,200 metres.
1,500 metres.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, what is the minimum separation time for medium aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft?
3 minutes.
4 minutes.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, what is the minimum separation time for medium aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft?
3 minutes.
4 minutes.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
When should wind direction be adjusted to local variation and given in degrees magnetic?
Before landing and take-off
In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
When should wind direction be adjusted to local variation and given in degrees magnetic?
Before landing and take-off
In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
What is the separation minimum applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
Medium aircraft have priority at all times.
Light aircraft can land without any restrictions.
There is no minimum separation required.
A separation minimum shall be applied.
What is the separation minimum applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
Medium aircraft have priority at all times.
Light aircraft can land without any restrictions.
There is no minimum separation required.
A separation minimum shall be applied.
What is the minimum separation between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
2 minutes
5 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
What is the minimum separation between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
2 minutes
5 minutes
1 minute
3 minutes
What minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft on the same runway?
3 minutes
2 minutes
1 minute
4 minutes
What minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft on the same runway?
3 minutes
2 minutes
1 minute
4 minutes
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are?
Known to the relevant air traffic services units.
Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.
Provided with air traffic control services, only.
Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are?
Known to the relevant air traffic services units.
Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.
Provided with air traffic control services, only.
Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.
Alerting service shall be provided for which type of flights?
In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan.
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference.
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
Alerting service shall be provided for which type of flights?
In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan.
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference.
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft on the same runway?
2 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute
5 minutes
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft on the same runway?
2 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute
5 minutes
Where a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available, what procedure may be used for radar identification?
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
Where a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available, what procedure may be used for radar identification?
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
Which code is used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
Code 2000.
Code 7700.
Code 7600.
Code 7500.
Which code is used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
Code 2000.
Code 7700.
Code 7600.
Code 7500.
What does ATC term 'Radar contact' signify?
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
What does ATC term 'Radar contact' signify?
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
What does it mean when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after being vectored to an airway?
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
Radar Service is terminated.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
What does it mean when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after being vectored to an airway?
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
Radar Service is terminated.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C indicates that it has passed this level by?
+/- 300 ft.
More than 300 ft.
300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C indicates that it has passed this level by?
+/- 300 ft.
More than 300 ft.
300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below?
1.5 NM.
5.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below?
1.5 NM.
5.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
2.0 NM.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
5 NM
8 NM
6 NM
10 NM
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
5 NM
8 NM
6 NM
10 NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
2 NM
4 NM
1 NM
3 NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
2 NM
4 NM
1 NM
3 NM
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
3 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
1 NM from touchdown
2.5 NM from touchdown
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
3 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
1 NM from touchdown
2.5 NM from touchdown
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
+/- 20 kt
+/- 8 kt
+/- 15 kt
+/- 10 kt
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
+/- 20 kt
+/- 8 kt
+/- 15 kt
+/- 10 kt
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
5 NM from the threshold on final approach
3 NM from the threshold on final approach
4 NM from the threshold on final approach
2 NM from the threshold on final approach
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
5 NM from the threshold on final approach
3 NM from the threshold on final approach
4 NM from the threshold on final approach
2 NM from the threshold on final approach
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to 'resume own navigation'. This phrase means that:
You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to 'resume own navigation'. This phrase means that:
You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation
The Air Traffic control Services: do not prevent collisions with terrain.
Prevent collisions with terrain
Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar
Do not prevent collisions with terrain
Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC
The Air Traffic control Services: do not prevent collisions with terrain.
Prevent collisions with terrain
Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar
Do not prevent collisions with terrain
Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC
Which code shall be used on mode 'A' to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7500
Code 7600
Code 7700
Code 7000
Which code shall be used on mode 'A' to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7500
Code 7600
Code 7700
Code 7000
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots
To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights
To conduct surveillance radar approaches
To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots
To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights
To conduct surveillance radar approaches
To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory
To provide radar separation
To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment
To assist aircraft on the location storms
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory
To provide radar separation
To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment
To assist aircraft on the location storms
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it
Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR
Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it
Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR
Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar
A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
5 NM
2 NM
3 NM
4 NM
A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
5 NM
2 NM
3 NM
4 NM
When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from 'ON' to 'STBY' and back to 'ON'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'ON'.
To request pilot to switch from 'ON' to 'STDBY'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'OFF'.
When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from 'ON' to 'STBY' and back to 'ON'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'ON'.
To request pilot to switch from 'ON' to 'STDBY'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'OFF'.
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
30 degrees
20 degrees
25 degrees
15 degrees
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
30 degrees
20 degrees
25 degrees
15 degrees
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
2.5 NM
5 NM
2 NM
3 NM
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
2.5 NM
5 NM
2 NM
3 NM
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
+/- 200 ft.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 500 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
+/- 200 ft.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 500 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
3.5 NM.
10.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
3.5 NM.
10.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be:
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 150 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be:
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 150 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
+/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
+/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restoration is impossible, then:
you must indicate the failure in the flight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight,
you are not allowed to commence the flight
the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restoration is impossible, then:
you must indicate the failure in the flight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight,
you are not allowed to commence the flight
the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
The aircraft is subject to positive control
The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
Position reports may be omitted
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
The aircraft is subject to positive control
The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
Position reports may be omitted
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
15 knots at any stage
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
25 knots at any stage
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
15 knots at any stage
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
25 knots at any stage
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
5NM
2NM
3NM
1NM
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
5NM
2NM
3NM
1NM
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
5 NM
2.5 NM
1.5 NM
3 NM
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
5 NM
2.5 NM
1.5 NM
3 NM
During radar-control, a 'radar-controller' shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 'tower-controller' has not issued a 'landing-clearance' at the moment the aircraft is:
3 NM from touch-down
1NM from touch-down
4 NM from touch-down
2 NM from touch-down
During radar-control, a 'radar-controller' shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 'tower-controller' has not issued a 'landing-clearance' at the moment the aircraft is:
3 NM from touch-down
1NM from touch-down
4 NM from touch-down
2 NM from touch-down
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway, transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
3 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway, transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
3 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when determined by the appropriate ATS authority that accuracy permits to continue to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case, distance and level information shall be given at each:
half NM
1 NM
half mile
1.5 NM
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when determined by the appropriate ATS authority that accuracy permits to continue to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case, distance and level information shall be given at each:
half NM
1 NM
half mile
1.5 NM
Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
4 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
4 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
1.5 NM from the touchdown
5 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
1.5 NM from the touchdown
5 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if it is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
Last 3 NM of the approach
Last 2 NM of the approach
Last 5 NM of the approach
Last 4 NM of the approach
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if it is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
Last 3 NM of the approach
Last 2 NM of the approach
Last 5 NM of the approach
Last 4 NM of the approach
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
± 10KT
± 15 KT
± 20KT
± 25 KT
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
± 10KT
± 15 KT
± 20KT
± 25 KT
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
030° true, in still air conditions
030° magnetic in still air conditions
030° magnetic
030° true
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
030° true, in still air conditions
030° magnetic in still air conditions
030° magnetic
030° true
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
COM.
MET.
GEN.
RAC.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
COM.
MET.
GEN.
RAC.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refueling facilities and limitations on refueling services?
FAL.
MET.
GEN.
AD.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refueling facilities and limitations on refueling services?
FAL.
MET.
GEN.
AD.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
GEN
MAP
AGA
ENR
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
GEN
MAP
AGA
ENR
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
NOTAM
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
AIRAC
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
NOTAM
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
AIRAC
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
An AIRAC
An ATS NOΤΑΜ
An Advisory NOTAM
A NOTAM RAC
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
An AIRAC
An ATS NOΤΑΜ
An Advisory NOTAM
A NOTAM RAC
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
Only NOTAM's and Circulars
Only AIP and NOTAM's
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
Only NOTAM's and Circulars
Only AIP and NOTAM's
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
only in NOTAM
only in AIP
NOTAM, AIP and MAL
in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
only in NOTAM
only in AIP
NOTAM, AIP and MAL
in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"?
GEN
AGA
ENR
AD
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"?
GEN
AGA
ENR
AD
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements:
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC
AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summaries
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements:
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC
AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summaries
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of:
At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of:
At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
Six months or longer
One year or longer
Two months or longer
Three months or longer
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
Six months or longer
One year or longer
Two months or longer
Three months or longer
Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifiable
Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifiable
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
Not more than one month
Not more than 2 months
Not more than three months
Not more than 28 days
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
Not more than one month
Not more than 2 months
Not more than three months
Not more than 28 days
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
No more than 15 days
Not more than 10 days
Not more than one month
Not more than 28 days
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
No more than 15 days
Not more than 10 days
Not more than one month
Not more than 28 days
When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:
ORANGE
GREEN
YELLOW
RED
When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:
ORANGE
GREEN
YELLOW
RED
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts?
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
Visibility minima
OCH or OCA
DME-frequencies
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts?
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
Visibility minima
OCH or OCA
DME-frequencies
Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
OCA or OCH
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
DME-frequencies
Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
OCA or OCH
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
DME-frequencies
ASHTAM refers to:
NAVTAM
VULTAM
1999-06-08 0:00
GVATAM
ASHTAM refers to:
NAVTAM
VULTAM
1999-06-08 0:00
GVATAM
AIRAC stands for:
1999-06-08 0:00
EATCHIP
IFPS
NOTAM
AIRAC stands for:
1999-06-08 0:00
EATCHIP
IFPS
NOTAM
AIP Supplements are known as:
1999-06-08 0:00
Trigger NOTAM
NOTAM
AIP Amendments
AIP Supplements are known as:
1999-06-08 0:00
Trigger NOTAM
NOTAM
AIP Amendments
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:
GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, ΜΑΡ.
GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:
GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, ΜΑΡ.
GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part:
ENR
AGA
GEN
MET
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part:
ENR
AGA
GEN
MET
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP:
GEN
FAL
RAC
AD
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP:
GEN
FAL
RAC
AD
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP:
ENR
AD
GEN
MAP
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP:
ENR
AD
GEN
MAP
An AIRAC is:
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
An AIRAC is:
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
Annex 14
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
Annex 14
What are 'Instrument runways' intended for?
Only non-precision approach
Operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
Only precision approach category III
Only clearway procedures
What are 'Instrument runways' intended for?
Only non-precision approach
Operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
Only precision approach category III
Only clearway procedures
What is 'Code letter D' for in terms of taxiway identification?
For aircraft with a 5 m wheel span
Used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m.
For all aircraft types
For aircraft with a 10 m wheel span
What is 'Code letter D' for in terms of taxiway identification?
For aircraft with a 5 m wheel span
Used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m.
For all aircraft types
For aircraft with a 10 m wheel span
What does 'TODA' stand for?
Total operational distance available
Time of day available
Take-off distance available.
Take-off direct altitude
What does 'TODA' stand for?
Total operational distance available
Time of day available
Take-off distance available.
Take-off direct altitude
What is defined as a clearway?
An area to allow aircraft to land
A rectangular area established to permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
An area to stop aircraft after take-off
A runway designed for emergencies
What is defined as a clearway?
An area to allow aircraft to land
A rectangular area established to permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
An area to stop aircraft after take-off
A runway designed for emergencies
Which 'code letter' identifies a taxiway for an aircraft with a wheelbase of 15 m?
Code letter 'D'
Code letter 'B'
Code letter 'A'
Code letter 'C'.
Which 'code letter' identifies a taxiway for an aircraft with a wheelbase of 15 m?
Code letter 'D'
Code letter 'B'
Code letter 'A'
Code letter 'C'.
What does 'Code Letter E' identify in the Aerodrome Reference Code?
A 24 m wing span
A 36 m wing span
A 15 m wing span
An aircraft wing span of 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
What does 'Code Letter E' identify in the Aerodrome Reference Code?
A 24 m wing span
A 36 m wing span
A 15 m wing span
An aircraft wing span of 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
What does the code element 2 in the Aerodrome Reference Code identify?
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
Only the main gear wheel span
The aircraft length
The aircraft engine size
What does the code element 2 in the Aerodrome Reference Code identify?
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
Only the main gear wheel span
The aircraft length
The aircraft engine size
What is the Aerodrome Reference Code composed of?
Two elements related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions.
One element only
A single numerical code
Three elements based on speed
What is the Aerodrome Reference Code composed of?
Two elements related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions.
One element only
A single numerical code
Three elements based on speed
What does 'Code number 4' identify in terms of aircraft reference field length?
1 200 m
1 500 m
1 600 m
An aircraft reference field length of 1 800 m and over.
What does 'Code number 4' identify in terms of aircraft reference field length?
1 200 m
1 500 m
1 600 m
An aircraft reference field length of 1 800 m and over.
What is the definition of a STOPWAY?
Only for emergency landings
A defined rectangular area prepared for an aircraft to be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
An operational runway extension
An area only for landing
What is the definition of a STOPWAY?
Only for emergency landings
A defined rectangular area prepared for an aircraft to be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
An operational runway extension
An area only for landing
What does 'ASDA' stand for?
Air Stop Distance Assessment
Aircraft Safety Distance Average
Acceleration Stop Distance Available.
Automatic Speed Distance Aid
What does 'ASDA' stand for?
Air Stop Distance Assessment
Aircraft Safety Distance Average
Acceleration Stop Distance Available.
Automatic Speed Distance Aid
What is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
40 metres
35 metres
45 metres.
30 metres
What is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4?
40 metres
35 metres
45 metres.
30 metres
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
Flashing white.
Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
Flashing white.
Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Fixed white.
Flashing white.
Fixed green.
Flashing green.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Fixed white.
Flashing white.
Fixed green.
Flashing green.
The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?
4.
3.
2.
5.
In the 'VASIS', how many light units are in each wing bar?
4.
3.
2.
5.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
150 m.
200 m.
300 m.
250 m.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
150 m.
200 m.
300 m.
250 m.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
None.
1.
2.
3.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
None.
1.
2.
3.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Fixed lights showing green.
Fixed lights showing yellow.
Fixed lights showing blue.
Fixed lights showing white.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Fixed lights showing green.
Fixed lights showing yellow.
Fixed lights showing blue.
Fixed lights showing white.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Flashing lights showing variable white.
Fixed lights showing variable green.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Flashing lights showing variable green.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Flashing lights showing variable white.
Fixed lights showing variable green.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Flashing lights showing variable green.
The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
Precision Approach Path Indicator.
Precision Approach Path Index.
Precision Approach Power Indicator.
Precision Approach Power Index.
The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
Precision Approach Path Indicator.
Precision Approach Path Index.
Precision Approach Power Indicator.
Precision Approach Power Index.
The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
Below the approach slope.
Above the approach slope.
Only on the approach slope.
On or close to the approach slope.
In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
Below the approach slope.
Above the approach slope.
Only on the approach slope.
On or close to the approach slope.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' - for 3 'L', 'C' and 'R'.
By a number like '0' and '01' for 2 parallel runways.
By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' and the central has no letter.
By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' - for 3 'L', 'C' and 'R'.
By a number like '0' and '01' for 2 parallel runways.
By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' and the central has no letter.
By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed showing blue.
Fixed showing yellow.
Flashing showing blue.
Fixed showing green.
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Fixed showing blue.
Fixed showing yellow.
Flashing showing blue.
Fixed showing green.
Runway end lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
Fixed lights showing variable red.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
Runway end lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
Fixed lights showing variable red.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, red background with black inscriptions.
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, red background with black inscriptions.
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II?
600m
300m
900m
150m
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II?
600m
300m
900m
150m
What is a 'barrette'?
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
a CAT II or III holding position.
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
What is a 'barrette'?
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
a CAT II or III holding position.
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:
a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:
a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
450 m from threshold
150 m from threshold
300 m from threshold
600 m from threshold
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
450 m from threshold
150 m from threshold
300 m from threshold
600 m from threshold
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway,
of flashing lights only,
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
of an arbitrary amount of green lights,
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway,
of flashing lights only,
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
of an arbitrary amount of green lights,
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
900 metres
1000 metres
420 metres
1200 metres
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
900 metres
1000 metres
420 metres
1200 metres
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
Fixed red.
Flashing white.
Fixed orange.
Flashing red.
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
Fixed red.
Flashing white.
Fixed orange.
Flashing red.
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Fixed red or preferably orange.
Flashing red or preferably yellow.
Fixed red or preferably blue.
Flashing blue.
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Fixed red or preferably orange.
Flashing red or preferably yellow.
Fixed red or preferably blue.
Flashing blue.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Fixed red.
Flashing yellow.
Fixed orange.
Flashing red.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Fixed red.
Flashing yellow.
Fixed orange.
Flashing red.
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
The longuest aeroplane maximum width only
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
The longuest aeroplane maximum width only
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
annex 8
annex 6
annex 9
annex 15
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
annex 8
annex 6
annex 9
annex 15
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
annex 15
annex 9
annex 16
annex 8
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
annex 15
annex 9
annex 16
annex 8
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s):
The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
The air waybill number
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s):
The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
The air waybill number
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
2 of each
3 of each
2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
2 of each
3 of each
2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
for a period of 12 hours
for a period of 48 hours
for a period of 24 hours
For a period to be established by that State
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
for a period of 12 hours
for a period of 48 hours
for a period of 24 hours
For a period to be established by that State
Which one of the statements is correct:
contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
Which one of the statements is correct:
contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land.
At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
At least one hour prior to land.
At least immediately before landing.
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land.
At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
At least one hour prior to land.
At least immediately before landing.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
The stated above is correct.
The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
The obligation of the operator
The operator has no obligation.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
The stated above is correct.
The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
The obligation of the operator
The operator has no obligation.
What does the aviation regulation state about termination?
Terminates after landing.
Terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
Terminates when baggage is unloaded.
Terminates upon arrival.
What does the aviation regulation state about termination?
Terminates after landing.
Terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
Terminates when baggage is unloaded.
Terminates upon arrival.
What happens when cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination?
They are stored indefinitely.
They are returned to the sender.
They return to the original airport.
They are unladen at another international airport.
What happens when cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination?
They are stored indefinitely.
They are returned to the sender.
They return to the original airport.
They are unladen at another international airport.
Where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator?
c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taxes on the operator
Where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator?
c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taxes on the operator
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed:
b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO
d) by the Regional Postal Office
a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed:
b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO
d) by the Regional Postal Office
a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
b) has to be typewritten
c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
b) has to be typewritten
c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states:
d) none of the answers are applicable
b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight
a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
c) in certain cases any other identity may be required
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states:
d) none of the answers are applicable
b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight
a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
c) in certain cases any other identity may be required
The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
What is the responsibility of the command of the situation in a Search and Rescue helicopter?
(1) until the completion of operations
(1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3)
(1), and then by mutual consent to (3)
What is the responsibility of the command of the situation in a Search and Rescue helicopter?
(1) until the completion of operations
(1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3)
(1), and then by mutual consent to (3)
What color streamer is used for medical supplies and first aid equipment?
Blue for blankets and protective clothing
Red
Yellow for miscellaneous equipment
Black for food and water
What color streamer is used for medical supplies and first aid equipment?
Blue for blankets and protective clothing
Red
Yellow for miscellaneous equipment
Black for food and water
Which color streamer is designated for food and water?
Black
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing
Red for food and water
Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment
Which color streamer is designated for food and water?
Black
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing
Red for food and water
Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment
What color streamer indicates food and water?
Yellow
Red
Black
Blue
What color streamer indicates food and water?
Yellow
Red
Black
Blue
What color streamer signifies medical supplies and first aid equipment?
Yellow
Black
Red
Blue
What color streamer signifies medical supplies and first aid equipment?
Yellow
Black
Red
Blue
Using the ground-air visual code, what letter(s) means 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE'?
3
4
2
1
Using the ground-air visual code, what letter(s) means 'REQUIRE ASSISTANCE'?
3
4
2
1
Using the ground-air visual code, what symbol means 'we have found all personnel'?
3
4
1
2
Using the ground-air visual code, what symbol means 'we have found all personnel'?
3
4
1
2
What does the symbol in the ground-air visual signal code indicate?
Require medical assistance
Require assistance
Landing here impossible
Drop emergency supplies at this point
What does the symbol in the ground-air visual signal code indicate?
Require medical assistance
Require assistance
Landing here impossible
Drop emergency supplies at this point
What does the ground-air visual code illustrated signify?
Require medical assistance
Proceding in the direction shown
Require assistance
Please indicate direction
What does the ground-air visual code illustrated signify?
Require medical assistance
Proceding in the direction shown
Require assistance
Please indicate direction
Using the ground-air visual signal code, what letter resembles 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE'?
1
2
3
4
Using the ground-air visual signal code, what letter resembles 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE'?
1
2
3
4
What does the ground-air visual signal code for rescue units indicate?
Operation completed
We are returning to base
We have found all personnel
We have found only some personnel
What does the ground-air visual signal code for rescue units indicate?
Operation completed
We are returning to base
We have found all personnel
We have found only some personnel
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
243.0 MHz
121.5 MHz
2.182 KHz
2430 KHz
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
243.0 MHz
121.5 MHz
2.182 KHz
2430 KHz
What does a ground signal in the form of an 'X' indicate?
All occupants alive
Need medical assistance
Need mechanical assistance
Landing impossible
What does a ground signal in the form of an 'X' indicate?
All occupants alive
Need medical assistance
Need mechanical assistance
Landing impossible
What must a pilot do to acknowledge a luminous signal requesting help?
Make at least one complete turn
Fly over as low as possible
Transmit a series of 'R' in Morse
Switch his landing lights on and off twice
What must a pilot do to acknowledge a luminous signal requesting help?
Make at least one complete turn
Fly over as low as possible
Transmit a series of 'R' in Morse
Switch his landing lights on and off twice
What safeguard is to be observed for the transport of potentially disruptive passengers?
Boarding prior to all passengers
Boarding at pilot's discretion
Boarding at state discretion
Boarding after all other passengers
What safeguard is to be observed for the transport of potentially disruptive passengers?
Boarding prior to all passengers
Boarding at pilot's discretion
Boarding at state discretion
Boarding after all other passengers
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consultations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State.
a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consultations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State.
a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
c) ECAC
a) Each contracting state
b) ICAO
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
c) ECAC
a) Each contracting state
b) ICAO
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority:
a) Shall be specified to ICAO
c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority:
a) Shall be specified to ICAO
c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.
a) The state above question is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.
b) Correct.
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.
a) The state above question is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.
b) Correct.
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed:
b) only the passengers are to be re screened
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed:
b) only the passengers are to be re screened
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
d) There are no conditions
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
d) There are no conditions
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
d) None of the answers is correct
b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
d) None of the answers is correct
b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention, for the initiation of an accident investigation?
The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered
The government of the state in which the accident took place
The aircraft manufacturer
Operators of the same aircraft type
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention, for the initiation of an accident investigation?
The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered
The government of the state in which the accident took place
The aircraft manufacturer
Operators of the same aircraft type
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall inform the state of occurrence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft:
Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall inform the state of occurrence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft:
Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts which combination is correct?
1,5,6
2,3,4
1,3,4
2,5,6
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts which combination is correct?
1,5,6
2,3,4
1,3,4
2,5,6
DURALUMIN alloys combination that is correct is:
1,3,6
2,4,5
1,4,5
2,3,6
DURALUMIN alloys combination that is correct is:
1,3,6
2,4,5
1,4,5
2,3,6
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
'Fail safe construction' is:
A type of construction for small aircraft only.
A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
A simple and cheap type of construction.
A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
'Fail safe construction' is:
A type of construction for small aircraft only.
A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
A simple and cheap type of construction.
A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
The purpose of stringers in the fuselage of an aircraft is to:
provide sound and thermal isolation.
integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.
assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
withstand the shear stresses.
The purpose of stringers in the fuselage of an aircraft is to:
provide sound and thermal isolation.
integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.
assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
withstand the shear stresses.
The reason that an airplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights is that:
the procedures and checklists for this kind of airplanes will take too much time
in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the airplane's structure in an unacceptable way
these airplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
the lifetime of the fatigue-sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.
The reason that an airplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights is that:
the procedures and checklists for this kind of airplanes will take too much time
in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the airplane's structure in an unacceptable way
these airplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
the lifetime of the fatigue-sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment causing its leading edge to operate in:
compression.
tension.
tension, then in compression.
compression, then in tension.
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment causing its leading edge to operate in:
compression.
tension.
tension, then in compression.
compression, then in tension.
In flight, the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is:
equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
highest at the wing root
lowest at the wing root
In flight, the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is:
equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
highest at the wing root
lowest at the wing root
The maximum bending moment at wing root.
The maximum bending moment at wing root.
Requires to empty external tanks first.
Requires to empty external tanks first.
Requires to empty internal tanks first.
Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is:
2,5
1,2,3
The correct combination of true statements is:
2,5
1,2,3
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised?
4th freedom
3rd freedom
2nd freedom
1st freedom
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the:
Warzaw convention 1929
Chicago convention 1944
Geneva convention 1936
Geneva convention 1948
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of:
Montreal
Warsaw
Chicago
The Hague
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
approve new international airlines
approve new international airlines with jet aircraft
approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
develop principles and techniques for international aviation
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption?
the Air Navigation Commission
the Assembly
the Regional Air Navigation meeting
the Council
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
binding for all airline companies with international traffic
binding for all member states
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à-vis passenger and goods transported
operator's licence for international scheduled aviation
the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
the security system at airports
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
2 months following the date ICAO is informed
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law:
may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
may request such person to disembark
may deliver such person to the competent authorities
may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed:
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to the member airline associations
to the local authorities
to the other Contracting States
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
the convention of Paris
the convention of Tokyo
the convention of Rome
the convention of Chicago
"Cabotage" refers to:
crop spraying
domestic air services,
a national air carrier,
a flight above territorial waters,
The second freedom of the air is the:
right to land for a technical stop
right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
right to overfly without landing
right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.
The first freedom of the air is:
The right to land for a technical stop.
The right to overfly without landing.
The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.
The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is:
the convention of Madrid
the convention of Warsaw
the convention of Rome
the convention of Tokyo
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:
only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
the above convention does not deal with this item
caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
Warsaw Convention.
Montreal Convention.
Hague Convention.
Tokyo Convention.
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
the Rome Convention
the Warsaw Convention
the Tokyo Convention
the Paris Convention
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by:
the Montreal Convention
the Rome Convention
the Chicago Convention
the Warsaw Convention
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the:
five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
letters used for ICAO identification documents
three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
four letter combinations beginning with Q
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
The loading limitations shall include:
all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and mass distributions
all limiting mass and centres of gravity
The assignment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
the International Telecommunication Union
the state of registry
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio call signs allocated:
to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
to state of the operator
to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International Telecommunication Union
to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
the International Civil Aviation Organisation
the International Telecommunication Union
the state of registry only
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example:
RCC
TTT
LLL
FFF
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 50 centimetres
at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
at least 75 centimetres
at least 60 centimetres
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be:
at least 30 centimetres
at least 40 centimetres
at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
at least 20 centimetres
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:
30th of October the same year
31th of December the same year
30th of April the following year
15th of October the same year
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorization:
Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
Is only considered for PPL.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity?
Annex 2
Annex 4
Annex 3
Annex 1
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL:
With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
With an ATPL
With a CPL
With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is:
18 and 60 years
16 and 60 years
17 and 59 years
21 and 59 years
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is:
60
90
30
21
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed:
After 21 days of consecutive 'illness'
as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21 days
if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
after one calendar month of consecutive illness
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than:
100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
40% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
60% of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than:
18 years of age
17 years of age
16 years of age
21 years of age
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold:
a current class II medical assessment
a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence
a current class III medical assessment
a current class I medical assessment
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively:
200 hours and 75 hours
250 hours and 100 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively:
250 hours and 10 hours
200 hours and 75 hours
200 hours and 100 hours
150 hours and 75 hours
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.
75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.
The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1,500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating shall have completed hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively:
40 hours and 10 hours
40 hours and 15 hours
50 hours and 10 hours
50 hours and 15 hours
In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
In the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.
The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date:
the licence is delivered to the pilot
the licence is issued or renewed
the licence is issued or validated
the medical assessment is issued
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorization
c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from:
b) 12 months to 3 months
c) 24 months to 12 months
a) 12 months to 6 months
d) none of the answers are correct
Type ratings shall be established
c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots
d) all the answers are correct
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time
The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is:
d) Annex 12
a) Annex 1
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 11
At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
a) At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year
c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains
What is the validity period for a Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots until the age of 30?
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
How long is a Class 2 medical certificate valid until the age of 50?
12 months thereafter
12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 50
24 months until age of 40
Which statement best describes the validity periods of Class 2 medical certificates for private pilots?
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
200 hours of flight time
150 hours of flight time
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for:
one year
Indefinitely
The period of validity of the licence.
two years
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours:
Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including:
All self.-sustaining gliders.
Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date:
Of the last medical certificate
The application is received by the Authority.
Of the skill test
Of issue
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for:
Two years
Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
Five years after licence issue.
One year
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: required,
Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not required,
Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance: not required
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance?
Switching on and off three times the landing lights
Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
Switching on and off four times the landing lights
The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
Descend for landing
Descend
Let down
You land
Are you able to comply with the instructions received?
NOT POSSIBLE
CAN NOT
UNABLE TO COMPLY
CAN NOT COMPLY
What does a flashing red light from the control tower during an approach to land mean?
The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
The airport is unsafe, do not land
On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
all vehicles moving on the apron except the 'follow me' vehicle
other converging aircraft
aircraft taking off or about to take off
other vehicles and pedestrians
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.
An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a control zone when ceiling is less than:
1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
The airliner operator
The commander
The aircraft owner
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
Emergency aircraft
VIP (Head of state) aircraft
Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention
Military aircraft
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'B' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
The VMC minima for an airspace classified as 'G' above 10 000 feet MSL are:
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
5%
10%
3%
2%
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following code on mode 'A':
7 000
7 700
7 600
7 500
An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft 'YOU MAY PROCEED'?
Rocking the wings and flashing the navigation light.
Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by?
15
12
10.5.1.0 (94)
8
What is the minimum altitude for an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft
Which aircraft has the right of way when Aircraft 'A' is flying in VMC conditions with ATC clearance?
Aircraft 'B' regardless of the direction 'A' is approaching
Aircraft 'B' if 'A' is on its left
Aircraft 'A' if 'B' is on its right
Aircraft 'A' regardless of the direction which 'B' is approaching
What action must be taken if a controlled flight deviates from the track?
Inform the ATC unit immediately
If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
In case of an emergency causing deviation from ATC clearance, what must the pilot do?
Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
Squawk 7700
The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit
Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
What signal does a signalman use to ask the pilot to apply parking brakes?
Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
Crossing arms extended above his head
What should an aircraft do if it loses radiocommunications while flying IFR in clear visibility?
Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.
Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
Adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
What does a red flare signal indicate to a flying aircraft?
Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
Come back and land.
Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
What is required for aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace?
May file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
Need to file a flight plan
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.
Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.
When must ATC be informed of a deviation if a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its flight plan?
The TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.
Of an emergency.
It is a deviation from the track.
The estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
What is the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain for IFR flight?
At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
a) on the ground when the engines are running
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
no options provided
no correct answer indicated
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are:
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
8 km visibility, and clear of clouds
No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will:
Select A7600 and continue according to your current flight plan to destination
Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC instructions. You should:
follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
request ATC for other instructions
select code A7500 on your transponder
follow ATC instructions
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft:
must give way to another aircraft
must land immediately and clear the landing area
is cleared to land
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time
Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000 ft AGL
3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL
FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL
FL 30 or 100 ft AGL
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order to minimize the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
Declare an emergency
Fly the emergency triangle
While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
must vacate the landing area in use
must stop
may continue to taxi to the take-off area
must return to its point of departure
While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
may continue to taxi towards the take-off area
must stop
must return to its point of departure
is cleared for take-off
An aircraft maneuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
not land because the airport is not available for landing
return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course
give way to another aircraft
not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions
What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
Obstacle identification surface.
Obstacle in surface.
Obstacle identification slope.
Obstruction in surface.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
25 NM
10 NM
15 NM
30 NM
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are:
ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is expected:
To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
To ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.
To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.
To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure procedure?
Navigation aids.
ATC requirements.
The terrain surrounding the airport.
Airspace restrictions.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals:
3.3% gradient.
35 ft.
0 ft.
0.8% gradient.
In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line within:
45°.
12.5°.
30°.
15°.
We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure track is within:
5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
300m (984 ft).
150m (492 ft).
600m (1968 ft).
450m (1476 ft).
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called:
Intermediate approach segment.
Final approach segment.
Initial approach segment.
Arrival segment.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
FAP.
touchdown zone.
FAF.
initiation point.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
d) When seems possible to land
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
d) Race track
a) Base turn
b) Procedure turn
c) Reversal procedure
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
c) Relevant runway threshold.
b) Aerodrome reference point.
a) Mean sea level.
d) Aerodrome elevation.
A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a:
d) Reversal track.
c) Race track.
a) Procedure turn.
b) Base turn.
You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until:
d) 1, 3.
c) 2, 3.
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 2.
During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
c) 125 kt
a) 135 kt
d) 150 kt
b) 120 kt
In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
c) 2 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
b) 1 minute.
a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
d) Up to 4.
a) Up to 5.
c) 4.
b) 3.
Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
d) At the final en-route fix.
b) At the IF.
c) At the FAF.
a) At the IAF.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
At least 300m (984 ft).
300m (984 ft).
At least 150m (492 ft).
150m (492 ft).
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
2 minutes.
1 minute 30 seconds.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute.
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
2 minutes.
1 minute.
1 minute 15 seconds.
1 minute 30 seconds.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
Shuttle.
Racetrack pattern.
Procedure turn.
Based turn.
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from:
150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).
150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:
One and a half of scale deflection.
A quarter of scale deflection.
One scale deflection.
Half a scale deflection.
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
6m.
3m.
9m.
12m.
Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
Initial, intermediate and final.
Initial and final.
Arrival, intermediate and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
5%.
2.5%.
3.3%.
0.8%.
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
At the missed approach point.
At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At the point where the climb is established.
At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Visual approach.
Contact approach.
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure:
Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Permits circling only in VMC.
Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
For which categories of aircraft does this regulation apply?
For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.
Only for categories A and B aircraft.
Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
What is a circling approach?
A contact flight manoeuvre.
A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what should the pilot do?
Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the FAF.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the final missed approach track.
Make an initial climbing turn towards the MAP.
What actions should be taken if contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre?
Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact.
Initiate a missed approach
If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact.
Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude.
What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the down wind leg?
Initiate a missed approach
Request an amended clearance.
Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude.
Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome.
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than:
Half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.
Half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35° off the centerline.
Full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
The flight-operations of the company
The state
The pilot-in-command
The operator
On a non-precision approach, a so-called 'straight-in-approach' is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is:
10 degrees or less
20 degrees or less
30 degrees or less
40 degrees or less
What is the normally applicable maximum descent gradient in the final approach segment to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance?
5%
7%
8%
6.5%
The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
The most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.
The outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the appropriate minimum.
The first part of the segment.
In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least:
Decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
1476 ft
492 ft
984 ft
During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to:
120 m (394 ft)
150 m (492 ft)
300 m (984 ft)
210 m (690 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
40 m (131 ft)
70 m (230 ft)
50 m (164 ft)
30 m (98 ft)
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is:
50 m (164 ft)
30 m (98 ft)
120 m (384 ft)
90 m (295 ft)
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
25 NM
20 NM
5 NM
10 NM
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
100 ft
150 ft
200 ft
250 ft
A 'precision approach' is a direct instrument approach:
using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.
using bearing, elevation and distance information.
using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
5%
2%
3.3%
2.5%
What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
maximum bank angle of 25°.
rate of 3°per second.
Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
230 kt TAS.
240 kt IAS.
230 kt IAS.
240 kt TAS.
Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
To the left.
To the right.
Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
First right and then to the left.
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.
Parallel.
Either "off set" or "parallel".
Off set.
Direct.
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
1 minute 30 seconds.
2 minutes 30 seconds.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
Heading.
Track.
Bearing.
Course.
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of:
15°.
10°.
5°.
20°.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
In a direction depending on the wind direction.
In a direction depending on the entry,
To the left.
To the right.
Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft?
Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound.
Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound.
The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
The level specified by ATC.
Transition altitude.
Transition level.
Transition layer.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:
As height.
According pilot's choice.
As flight level.
As altitude.
The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported:
As height.
According to pilot's choice.
As flight level.
As altitude.
During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as:
Flight level during descent.
Altitude above mean sea level during descent.
Altitude above mean sea level during climb.
Either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb.
Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
At transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
Only at transition altitude.
Only at transition level.
At transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
flight level on or below the transition altitude
flight level on or below the transition level
altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
Within the transition layer
When passing the transition level
When passing the transition altitude
The transition level:
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
is calculated and decided by the commander
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
Mode A code 7600
Mode B code 7600
Mode A code 7500
Mode A code 7700
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Only when directed by ATC.
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder to Mode A Code:
7600
7500
2000
7700
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
7700
7500
7000
7600
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
They operate a transponder with Mode C.
Requested by ATC.
They operate within controlled airspace.
They operate within non controlled airspace.
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
Read back only the code to be set.
Use only the word WILCO.
Read back the mode and code to be set.
Use only the word ROGER.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320. In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you will squawk code:
A 7620 Mode C
A 7600 Mode C
A 5300 Mode C
A 0020 Mode C
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:
the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
Control zone.
Flight Information Region.
Advisory airspace.
Control area.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
Advisory airspace.
Air traffic zone.
Control area.
Control zone.
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Class B.
Class D.
Class A.
Class E.
Aerodrome traffic is:
All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
Air Traffic Service unit means:
Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting offices.
Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS):
its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.
its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-area thereof is:
A NOTAM.
A SIGMET information.
An AIRMET information.
An En-Route Meteo Report.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
Annex 17.
Annex 11.
Annex 6.
Annex 14.
Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.
The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided:
Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
Flight Information Service only.
Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
A controlled airspace extending.
What is the height measured from the earth to be considered in this context?
2000 feet
1500 feet
1000 feet
500 feet
What do freedom of air rights refer to?
Passenger comfort regulations
Fuel efficiency standards
Pilot training protocols
Definitions of air traffic rights
What is a primary responsibility of air traffic control?
Calculating aircraft speeds
Conducting flight tests
Maintaining safe aircraft separation
Monitoring weather patterns
What regulations must pilots comply with regarding health?
Weather guidelines
Training regulations
Medical regulations
Flight plan regulations
What are the correct emergency signal codes used for?
Navigating flight paths
Initiating takeoff procedures
Communicating urgent situations
Coordinating refueling
What does a cargo manifest protocol ensure?
Flight availability
Passenger listings
Aircraft maintenance schedules
Accurate cargo documentation
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than:
200 metres.
150 metres.
500 metres.
300 metres.
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.
An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.
An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
Which statement is correct?
The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,
The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,
The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
two way radiocommunication is not required.
a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
a clearance is required.
a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.
An air traffic control unit:
may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.
must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
with the pilot's consent.
through a central control unit.
automatically at the control zone boundary.
by agreement with the receiving unit.
Concerning RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of:
plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
Recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus:
30 seconds of UTC at all times
10 seconds of UTC at all times
1 minute of UTC at all times
15 seconds of UTC at all times
Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of:
100 NM or more
50 NM or more
75 NM or more
60 NM or more
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed
by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
by regional air navigation agreements
by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E?
250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100
250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
250 KT IAS
Not applicable
240 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
240 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
250 KT IAS
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is:
250 KT IAS
250 KT TAS
Not applicable
260 KT IAS
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is:
250 KT IAS
260 KT IAS
Not applicable
250 KT TAS
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in:
have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
have to be as indicated by ICAO council
need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is:
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace B
Airspace C
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
Airspace D
Airspace E
Airspace C
Airspace B
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as:
Airspace A
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace B
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as:
Airspace B
Airspace A
Airspace E
Airspace D
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified:
Airspace E
Airspace D
Airspace F
Airspace G
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as:
Airspace F
Airspace E
Airspace G
Airspace C
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between IFR flights
Achieving separation between controlled flights
Providing flight Information Service
Providing advisory service
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
Providing flight Information Service
Providing alerting services
Providing advisory services
Achieving separation between controlled flights
You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
Do not take off before 0920
After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued
The take off clearance is expected at 0920
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is:
15 minutes.
10 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
15 minutes.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
6 minutes.
5 minutes.
3 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
2 minutes.
The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
3 minutes.
2 minutes.
When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided?
20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME is?
10 NM.
20 NM.
20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
5 NM.
When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected?
When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140.
When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120.
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft?
6 NM.
10 km.
2 km.
3 NM.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR, otherwise hourly.
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed?
30 seconds.
3 minutes.
2 minutes.
1 minute.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated?
as prescribed by the meteorological office.
at least every half an hour independently of any significant change.
immediately a significant change occurs.
as prescribed by the state.
Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of?
the meteorological office serving the aerodrome(s).
the unit as prescribed by the states.
both air traffic services and the meteorological office.
the air traffic services.
ATIS broadcast?
Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency.
Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR.
Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR.
shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS.
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes?
A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
F and G only.
F only.
C, D, E, F, and G.
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes?
C to G (inclusive).
A to G (inclusive).
F and G.
A to E (inclusive).
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover when the clouds are?
below 1 500 m (5,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 1 000 m (3,500 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 900 m (3,000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater.
When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
search and rescue co-ordination centres
flight information or control organisations
operational air traffic control centres
air traffic co-ordination services
The Alerting Service is provided by:
The Area Control Centres.
The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
Only by ATC units.
The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
A radio communications, 'Distress' differs from 'Urgency' because in the first case:
The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit
Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this,
The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference
The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received.
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
search and rescue coordination centres.
air traffic control and flight information centers.
air traffic coordination centres.
control centres only.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.
An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.
A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of:
25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of:
20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:
limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
What is the minimum CEU (flow control centre) for international flights?
15 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes for international flights
What is the CEU for a controlled flight?
15 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes
depends on the type of flight
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
15 minutes
5 minutes
60 minutes prior to departure
10 minutes prior to departure
What is the CEU for domestic flights?
5 minutes for domestic flights
depends on the type of flight
15 minutes
10 minutes
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall:
b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC.
d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations.
a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times.
A strayed aircraft is:
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost
"ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima.
b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
d) Only controlled IFR flights.
a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
c) All IFR flights.
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination is reached:
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and ensuing significant point.
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
The ATC.
The pilot in command.
The aircraft operator.
The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
I
Z
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
I
Y
Z
V
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when:
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.
The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
Read back should be unsolicited.
Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring verification.
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place:
as instructed by an air traffic control unit
when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
on the initiative of the aircraft commander
at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in:
flight identification and weather noted,
weather noted,
a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time,
urgent messages
The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
20 000 kg.
7 000 kg.
14 000 kg.
If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
indicated air speed (IAS).
estimated ground speed (G/S).
true air speed (TAS).
true air speed at 65% power.
The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication failure?
Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
Return to the aerodrome of departure.
Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the fix.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the fix.
At least 60° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
What is the minimum degree separation required from the FIX?
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 20 NM or more from the FIX.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX.
What should a pilot do if an ATC clearance is not suitable?
He must ignore the ATC clearance.
He has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan.
He should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
When is the 'VMC and own separation' ATC clearance used?
Requested by the pilot only.
Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state overflown.
Requested at night.
Requested by the pilot and during day light.
What is the standard execution for turns requested by a radar controller?
Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
Depends on weather conditions.
Decided on pilot's discretion.
Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
Only composite separation.
Vertical and longitudinal separation only.
Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
Horizontal, longitudinal and lateral separation.
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum below FL 290?
2500 feet (750 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
500 feet (150 m).
What is the vertical IFR separation minimum above FL 290?
500 feet (150 m).
4000 feet (1200 m).
2000 feet (600 m).
1000 feet (300 m).
What track separation is required between aircraft using the same VOR?
At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 10 NM or more from the facility.
At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
What should you do if you cannot establish radio communication after a turn instruction?
With an intercept of at least 45°.
On the nearest way.
With an intercept of at least 30°.
With an intercept of 20° or more.
What is the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the same direction above FL 290?
2000 feet.
1500 feet.
4000 feet.
3000 feet.
What distance is the longitudinal separation minima using DME?
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.
When does a VFR flight constitute essential traffic to other VFR flights?
When flying below 1000 feet.
When flying above FL 290.
When operating without a flight plan.
When operating in controlled airspace.
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least:
15° immediately after take-off.
30° immediately after take-off.
25° immediately after take-off.
45° immediately after take-off.
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called:
Reduced separation
Composite separation
Combined separation
Essential separation
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290?
1000 feet
2000 feet
1500 feet
500 feet
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
only in airspace class A
When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
Above the transition altitude when applicable
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible:
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
Only when leaving controlled airspace
If the commander so requests
Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend:
15 NM
12 NM
10 NM
20 NM
Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by:
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, the distance for RNAV distance based separation minimum in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum is:
70 NM
80 NM
60 NM
100 NM
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track is:
40 NM
20 NM
10 NM
25 NM
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level will be:
5 minutes
2 minutes
10 minutes
3 minutes
What is the longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed?
10 minutes
15 minutes
3 minutes
5 minutes
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility?
30 NM (55 km)
15 NM (28 km)
25 NM (46 km)
20 NM (37 km)
In a visual approach, which condition is required?
During IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
During IFR and VFR flights in VMC
In addition, visibility should be 5.5 km or more
During IFR flights, cloudbase is 1000 ft above the appropriate DA or MDA
What should a pilot do before penetrating IMC conditions with a low ceiling during take-off?
After take-off
Contact departure control before penetrating the clouds
When clear of the airport
When advised by Tower
During a visual approach in controlled airspace, who applies separation with other traffic?
ATC will apply separation only with IFR-traffic
The pilot to apply separation
ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
ATC will apply separation with other traffic
When is the EAT transmitted to the pilot in case of expected delay?
20 minutes
5 minutes or more
15 minutes or more
10 minutes
On how many occasions should RPLs not be used for flights operated regularly?
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of 20 consecutive days
On at least 20 days consecutively
On at least 20 occasions
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight-in approach, when may a departing aircraft take off?
Until three minutes
Until ten minutes
Until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
Until two minutes
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced:
If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
At the discretion of the air traffic controller
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions:
Continued approach will be according to VFR
The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
The approach must be passing the FAF
The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is:
5 KT
10 KT
3 KT
8 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:
2 KT
4 KT
5 KT
3 KT
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is:
5 KT
10 KT
8 KT
4 KT
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of:
the approach controller.
the radar controller.
the airport controller.
the pilot in command.
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
100 m (330 ft)
200 m (660 ft)
150 m (500 ft)
300 m (1000 ft)
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted:
1.0 NM
3.0 NM
5.0 NM
2.0 NM
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that:
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than:
15 degrees
25 degrees
30 degrees
20 degrees
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display
What is established between extended runway center lines as depicted on the radar display?
710 m
900 m
600 m
800 m
What is the minimum distance that an aircraft should be established on the ILS localizer course prior to intercepting the glide path?
3.0 NM
2.0 NM
1.5 NM
2.5 NM
What is the required angular divergence for missed approach tracks in dependent parallel approaches?
15°
30°
45°
25°
When a runway is 2,000 metres in length, how close may aircraft be held to the runway in use?
30 metres.
60 metres.
50 metres.
45 metres.
Which statement regarding aerodrome control service is correct?
Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller.
An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable.
ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle.
The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area.
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?
Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes.
If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft.
An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control.
During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation.
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation before the expected arrival of an aircraft?
At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.
Special VFR flights may be authorized to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than how many meters?
1,200 metres.
1,500 metres.
1,000 metres.
1,800 metres.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, what is the minimum separation time for medium aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft?
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
4 minutes.
1 minute.
When should wind direction be adjusted to local variation and given in degrees magnetic?
Before landing and take-off
When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
What is the separation minimum applied between a light or medium aircraft and a heavy aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
Light aircraft can land without any restrictions.
Medium aircraft have priority at all times.
There is no minimum separation required.
A separation minimum shall be applied.
What is the minimum separation between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach?
2 minutes
1 minute
5 minutes
3 minutes
What minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft on the same runway?
3 minutes
2 minutes
4 minutes
1 minute
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information and which are?
Known to the relevant air traffic services units.
Provided with air traffic control services, only.
Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan.
Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the relevant air traffic service units.
Alerting service shall be provided for which type of flights?
To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only.
In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan.
For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference.
For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft on the same runway?
2 minutes
5 minutes
3 minutes
1 minute
Where a Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) is not available, what procedure may be used for radar identification?
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
Which code is used on Mode 'A' to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference?
Code 2000.
Code 7600.
Code 7500.
Code 7700.
What does ATC term 'Radar contact' signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.
What does it mean when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after being vectored to an airway?
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
Radar Service is terminated.
Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C indicates that it has passed this level by?
300 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
More than 300 ft.
More than 200 ft.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately:
6 NM
10 NM
5 NM
8 NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last:
4 NM
2 NM
3 NM
1 NM
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
3 NM from touchdown
1 NM from touchdown
2.5 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
+/- 10 kt
+/- 15 kt
+/- 8 kt
+/- 20 kt
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed:
3 NM from the threshold on final approach
2 NM from the threshold on final approach
5 NM from the threshold on final approach
4 NM from the threshold on final approach
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to 'resume own navigation'. This phrase means that:
You are to assume responsability for your own navigation
You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point
You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports
Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports
The Air Traffic control Services: do not prevent collisions with terrain.
Do not prevent collisions with terrain
Prevent collisions with terrain
Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar
Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC
Which code shall be used on mode 'A' to provide recognition of an emergency aircraft?
Code 7600
Code 7500
Code 7700
Code 7000
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:
To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM
To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights
To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots
To conduct surveillance radar approaches
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
To provide radar separation
To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment
To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory
To assist aircraft on the location storms
When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it
Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar
Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR
Not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions
A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
3 NM
5 NM
4 NM
2 NM
When 'Secondary Radar' is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:
Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from 'ON' to 'STBY' and back to 'ON'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'ON'.
To request pilot to switch from 'ON' to 'STDBY'.
To request pilot to set transponder on position 'OFF'.
When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than:
25 degrees
15 degrees
30 degrees
20 degrees
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence:
2.5 NM
3 NM
2 NM
5 NM
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be:
3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be:
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 200 ft.
+/- 500 ft.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be:
10.0 NM.
5.0 NM.
3.0 NM.
3.5 NM.
The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be:
+/- 200 ft.
+/- 250 ft.
+/- 300 ft.
+/- 150 ft.
An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
+/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
+/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restoration is impossible, then:
the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,
you must indicate the failure in the flight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight,
you are not allowed to commence the flight
departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
Position reports may be omitted
The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
The aircraft is subject to positive control
Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than:
10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
15 knots at any stage
25 knots at any stage
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within:
1NM
3NM
2NM
5NM
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than:
2.5 NM
5 NM
1.5 NM
3 NM
During radar-control, a 'radar-controller' shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the 'tower-controller' has not issued a 'landing-clearance' at the moment the aircraft is:
1NM from touch-down
2 NM from touch-down
4 NM from touch-down
3 NM from touch-down
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway, transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of:
4 NM from the touchdown
3 NM from the touchdown
1.5 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when determined by the appropriate ATS authority that accuracy permits to continue to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case, distance and level information shall be given at each:
1.5 NM
half NM
1 NM
half mile
Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of:
4 NM from touchdown
2 NM from touchdown
5 NM from touchdown
3 NM from touchdown
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of:
1.5 NM from the touchdown
5 NM from the touchdown
4 NM from the touchdown
2 NM from the touchdown
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if it is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the:
Last 4 NM of the approach
Last 3 NM of the approach
Last 2 NM of the approach
Last 5 NM of the approach
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
± 10KT
± 20KT
± 25 KT
± 15 KT
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: 'fly heading 030', the pilot must fly heading:
030° magnetic
030° magnetic in still air conditions
030° true, in still air conditions
030° true
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
RAC.
COM.
GEN.
MET.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refueling facilities and limitations on refueling services?
GEN.
MET.
FAL.
AD.
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited, restricted and dangerous areas?
AGA
GEN
ENR
MAP
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
AIRAC
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
NOTAM
Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A NOTAM RAC
An ATS NOΤΑΜ
An AIRAC
An Advisory NOTAM
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC
Only NOTAM's and Circulars
Only AIP and NOTAM's
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
only in NOTAM
NOTAM, AIP and MAL
in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement
only in AIP
An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements:
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summaries
AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries
AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC
AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by:
The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D
The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed by the letters P, R and D and figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures
The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of:
At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
One year or longer
Six months or longer
Two months or longer
Three months or longer
Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with:
NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifiable
AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of:
Not more than 28 days
Not more than 2 months
Not more than one month
Not more than three months
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of:
Not more than 10 days
No more than 15 days
Not more than one month
Not more than 28 days
When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is:
RED
GREEN
ORANGE
YELLOW
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts?
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
OCH or OCA
DME-frequencies
Visibility minima
Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP?
OCA or OCH
Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
DME-frequencies
Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:
GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, ΜΑΡ.
GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are on the following part of the AIP:
FAL
RAC
GEN
AD
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP:
ENR
GEN
MAP
AD
An AIRAC is:
A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.
An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes?
Annex 14
What are 'Instrument runways' intended for?
Only clearway procedures
Operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures.
Only non-precision approach
Only precision approach category III
What is 'Code letter D' for in terms of taxiway identification?
Used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m.
For aircraft with a 10 m wheel span
For all aircraft types
For aircraft with a 5 m wheel span
What does 'TODA' stand for?
Take-off distance available.
Take-off direct altitude
Time of day available
Total operational distance available
What is defined as a clearway?
A rectangular area established to permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
A runway designed for emergencies
An area to allow aircraft to land
An area to stop aircraft after take-off
Which 'code letter' identifies a taxiway for an aircraft with a wheelbase of 15 m?
Code letter 'C'.
Code letter 'B'
Code letter 'A'
Code letter 'D'
What does 'Code Letter E' identify in the Aerodrome Reference Code?
A 15 m wing span
A 24 m wing span
A 36 m wing span
An aircraft wing span of 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
What does the code element 2 in the Aerodrome Reference Code identify?
The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
The aircraft engine size
The aircraft length
Only the main gear wheel span
What is the Aerodrome Reference Code composed of?
Three elements based on speed
A single numerical code
One element only
Two elements related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions.
What does 'Code number 4' identify in terms of aircraft reference field length?
1 200 m
1 500 m
1 600 m
An aircraft reference field length of 1 800 m and over.
What is the definition of a STOPWAY?
An area only for landing
Only for emergency landings
A defined rectangular area prepared for an aircraft to be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
An operational runway extension
What does 'ASDA' stand for?
Acceleration Stop Distance Available.
Air Stop Distance Assessment
Automatic Speed Distance Aid
Aircraft Safety Distance Average
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
Flashing white.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
Fixed white.
Flashing green.
Fixed green.
Flashing white.
The light shown by an 'Aerodrome Identification Beacon' at a land aerodrome shall be:
White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
White colour identification given by Morse Code.
Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of:
250 m.
300 m.
150 m.
200 m.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
1.
2.
3.
None.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:
Fixed lights showing blue.
Fixed lights showing white.
Fixed lights showing green.
Fixed lights showing yellow.
In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable green.
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Flashing lights showing variable white.
Flashing lights showing variable green.
The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
Precision Approach Power Index.
Precision Approach Path Indicator.
Precision Approach Path Index.
Precision Approach Power Indicator.
The 'PAPI' shall consist of:
Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
In the 'PAPI' system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
On or close to the approach slope.
Only on the approach slope.
Below the approach slope.
Above the approach slope.
In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented:
By a number like '0' and '01' for 2 parallel runways.
By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' - for 3 'L', 'C' and 'R'.
By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways 'L' and 'R' and the central has no letter.
By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
Taxiway edge lights shall be:
Flashing showing blue.
Fixed showing green.
Fixed showing blue.
Fixed showing yellow.
Runway end lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing variable white.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
Fixed lights showing variable red.
Runway threshold lights shall be:
Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
Fixed lights green colours.
Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:
information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, red background with black inscriptions.
information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.
mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system?
3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II?
600m
900m
300m
150m
What is a 'barrette'?
three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
a CAT II or III holding position.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for operations down to:
a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:
300 m from threshold
150 m from threshold
450 m from threshold
600 m from threshold
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:
of flashing lights only,
always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway,
of an arbitrary amount of green lights,
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system?
1000 metres
420 metres
900 metres
1200 metres
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
Flashing red or preferably yellow.
Flashing blue.
Fixed red or preferably orange.
Fixed red or preferably blue.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
Fixed orange.
Fixed red.
Flashing yellow.
Flashing red.
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.
The longuest aeroplane maximum width only
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is:
annex 6
annex 9
annex 15
annex 8
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is:
annex 8
annex 15
annex 9
annex 16
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s):
The air waybill number
The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The numbers of the copies are:
2 of each
3 of each
2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list
2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance notification. This information is to be received:
at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State without security for customs duty:
for a period of 48 hours
for a period of 24 hours
For a period to be established by that State
for a period of 12 hours
Which one of the statements is correct:
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers and crew
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew
contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as possible and:
At least 30 minute prior to land.
At least immediately before landing.
At least one hour prior to land.
At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
The obligation of the operator
The operator has no obligation.
The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
The stated above is correct.
What does the aviation regulation state about termination?
Terminates after landing.
Terminates upon arrival.
Terminates when baggage is unloaded.
Terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
What happens when cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended destination?
They are returned to the sender.
They are unladen at another international airport.
They return to the original airport.
They are stored indefinitely.
Where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross negligence or careless by the operator?
b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taxes on the operator
d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
d) cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed:
d) by the Regional Postal Office
a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO
b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned, when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival when:
b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her) arrival
d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
b) has to be typewritten
a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator:
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is required of him, contracting states:
a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
c) in certain cases any other identity may be required
d) none of the answers are applicable
b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his flight
The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
What is the responsibility of the command of the situation in a Search and Rescue helicopter?
(1) until the completion of operations
(1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations
(1), and then by mutual consent to (3)
(1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3)
What color streamer is used for medical supplies and first aid equipment?
Red
Yellow for miscellaneous equipment
Blue for blankets and protective clothing
Black for food and water
Which color streamer is designated for food and water?
Red for food and water
Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment
Yellow for blankets and protective clothing
Black
What does the symbol in the ground-air visual signal code indicate?
Landing here impossible
Drop emergency supplies at this point
Require medical assistance
Require assistance
What does the ground-air visual code illustrated signify?
Require assistance
Require medical assistance
Please indicate direction
Proceding in the direction shown
Using the ground-air visual signal code, what letter resembles 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE'?
4
2
3
1
What does the ground-air visual signal code for rescue units indicate?
We are returning to base
We have found only some personnel
We have found all personnel
Operation completed
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency?
2430 KHz
121.5 MHz
243.0 MHz
2.182 KHz
What does a ground signal in the form of an 'X' indicate?
Landing impossible
Need mechanical assistance
All occupants alive
Need medical assistance
What must a pilot do to acknowledge a luminous signal requesting help?
Make at least one complete turn
Transmit a series of 'R' in Morse
Fly over as low as possible
Switch his landing lights on and off twice
What safeguard is to be observed for the transport of potentially disruptive passengers?
Boarding prior to all passengers
Boarding at state discretion
Boarding after all other passengers
Boarding at pilot's discretion
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act.
c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consultations between the State where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft operator's State.
a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by:
a) Each contracting state
b) ICAO
c) ECAC
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said appropriate authority:
a) Shall be specified to ICAO
c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states
b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.
a) The state above question is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
b) Correct.
c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings.
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed:
a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
b) only the passengers are to be re screened
Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply:
a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon:
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
d) There are no conditions
a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below:
a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
d) None of the answers is correct
b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and taxiways.
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention, for the initiation of an accident investigation?
Operators of the same aircraft type
The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered
The government of the state in which the accident took place
The aircraft manufacturer
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall inform the state of occurrence of the name of its representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft:
Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3
1, 3, 4
2, 3, 4
'Fail safe construction' is:
A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
A simple and cheap type of construction.
A type of construction for small aircraft only.
The purpose of stringers in the fuselage of an aircraft is to:
withstand the shear stresses.
integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.
assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
provide sound and thermal isolation.
The reason that an airplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights is that:
in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the airplane's structure in an unacceptable way
these airplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
the lifetime of the fatigue-sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.
the procedures and checklists for this kind of airplanes will take too much time
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment causing its leading edge to operate in:
tension, then in compression.
compression.
tension.
compression, then in tension.
In flight, the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is:
highest at the wing root
equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span
equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
lowest at the wing root
Question 10.1.1.2 (3): ICAO's objectives ratified by:
Question 10.1.1.2 (4): ICAO established by:
Question 10.1.2.1 (15): The second freedom is:
Question 10.1.2.1 (16): The first freedom is:
Question 10.4.0.0 (39): Minimum age for PPL is:
Question 10.4.0.0 (49): Hours required for commercial pilot license:
Question 10.11.1.4 (496): Visual signal code for 'REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE':
Question 10.12.1.0 (483): Documents for entry and departure must:
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