What are the buzzwords for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
What are the buzzwords for Infective Endocarditis?
What are the buzzwords for SLE (Lupus)?
What are the buzzwords for Multiple Sclerosis?
What are the buzzwords for Parkinson’s Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Crohn’s Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Ulcerative Colitis?
What are the buzzwords for Hodgkin Lymphoma?
What are the buzzwords for Celiac Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Tetralogy of Fallot?
What are the buzzwords for Pulmonary Embolism?
What are the buzzwords for Graves’ Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?
What are the buzzwords for Pernicious Anemia?
What are the buzzwords for TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)?
What are the buzzwords for Kawasaki Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?
What are the buzzwords for Myasthenia Gravis?
What are the buzzwords for G6PD Deficiency?
What are the buzzwords for Von Willebrand Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Sarcoidosis?
What are the buzzwords for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?
What are the buzzwords for Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
What are the buzzwords for Hyper-IgM Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Tay-Sachs Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Niemann-Pick Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Fabry Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Hereditary Spherocytosis?
What are the buzzwords for Alport Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Goodpasture Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?
What are the buzzwords for Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Wilson Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Aplastic Anemia?
What are the buzzwords for Cystic Fibrosis?
What are the buzzwords for Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Marfan Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Cushing Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Pheochromocytoma?
What are the buzzwords for Turner Syndrome?
What are the symptoms of a catecholamine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla?
What is the karyotype associated with Turner Syndrome?
What are the key features of Turner Syndrome?
What are the symptoms of Klinefelter Syndrome?
What is the karyotype associated with Klinefelter Syndrome?
What are the key features of Paget Disease of Bone?
What is a characteristic finding in Paget Disease of Bone?
What are the key features of Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)?
What are the symptoms of Dermatomyositis?
What is the association of Dermatomyositis?
What is a key geographic hint for Histoplasmosis?
What are the key features of Blastomycosis?
What is a geographic hint for Coccidioidomycosis?
What are the key features of Chagas Disease?
What is a key geographic hint for African Sleeping Sickness?
What are the key features of Malaria?
What are the symptoms of Dengue Fever?
What are the key features of Zika Virus?
What is a key geographic hint for Schistosomiasis?
What is a key feature of Leishmaniasis?
What is a key feature of Echinococcus (Hydatid Cyst)?
What is the tapeworm that causes liver/lung cysts?
What is Strongyloidiasis?
What is Amebiasis?
What disease does Yersinia pestis cause?
What causes Lyme Disease?
What are the key features of Rickettsial Diseases?
What is Typhoid Fever caused by?
What is Cysticercosis?
What is Japanese Encephalitis?
What causes Rheumatic Heart Disease?
What is Brucellosis?
What is MERS?
What is Q Fever?
What joints are affected in Osteoarthritis (OA)?
What joints are affected in Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
What joints are affected in Gout?
What joints are affected in Pseudogout?
What joints are affected in Psoriatic Arthritis?
What joints are affected in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What joints are affected in Reactive Arthritis?
What is the key feature of Reactive Arthritis?
What are the symptoms of Post-infectious Reactive Arthritis?
What joints are affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What are the key features of SLE?
What is the common presentation of Septic Arthritis?
What are the affected joints in Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)?
What are the key features of JIA?
What condition is characterized by bronze diabetes?
What is the cause of Lyme Disease?
What are the affected joints in Gonococcal Arthritis?
What are the key features of Gonococcal Arthritis?
What joints are affected in Sarcoidosis?
What syndrome is associated with Sarcoidosis?
What are the key features of Scleroderma?
What are the characteristics of Dermatomyositis/Polymyositis?
What is a key symptom of Fibromyalgia?
What is the presentation of Osteomyelitis with joint involvement?
What is the association of Charcot Joint (Neuropathic Arthropathy)?
What is a feature of Hyperparathyroidism?
What differentiates OA from RA?
What is the importance of recognizing patterns in joint diseases?
What is the characteristic discharge of Gonorrhea?
What are the key features of Chlamydia?
What is the discharge associated with Trichomoniasis?
What is the pH of discharge in Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
What is the discharge characteristic of Candidiasis?
What is the presentation of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Candidiasis?
What are the key features of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Primary Syphilis?
What are the key features of Secondary Syphilis?
What is the characteristic discharge for Human Papillomavirus (HPV)?
What are the key features of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Mycoplasma Genitalium?
What are the key features of Haemophilus ducreyi (Chancroid)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)?
What are the key features of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?
What are the key diagnostic clues for Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
What are the systemic symptoms of Syphilis?
What are the systemic symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Ureaplasma urealyticum?
What are the key features of Enteric STIs (e.g., proctitis)?
What are the systemic symptoms of Acute Retroviral Syndrome in HIV?
What is the characteristic discharge for Zika Virus?
What are the key features of Ectoparasitic Infections (e.g., Pubic Lice)?
What are the considerations for missing features in chronic vs. acute presentations?
What are the rare STIs mentioned?
What are overlap conditions that can present with mixed discharges?
What is an emerging STI mentioned?
What are the characteristics of Gonorrhea?
What are the characteristics of Chlamydia?
What are the characteristics of Trichomoniasis?
What are the characteristics of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
What are the characteristics of Candidiasis (Yeast Infection)?
What are the characteristics of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
What are the characteristics of Syphilis (Primary)?
What are the characteristics of Syphilis (Secondary)?
What are the characteristics of Haemophilus ducreyi (Chancroid)?
What are the characteristics of Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)?
What are the characteristics of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?
What are the characteristics of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What are the characteristics of Mycoplasma Genitalium?
What are the characteristics of HPV (Condyloma Acuminata)?
What are the characteristics of Enteric STIs (Proctitis)?
What are the characteristics of Monkeypox?
What are the characteristics of Molluscum Contagiosum?
What are the types of painful and painless ulcers in STDs?
Which newer pathogens are relevant for recent outbreaks?
What are the enteric STIs highlighted for MSM populations?
What is the rash location for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What are the key features of SLE?
What is the rash location for Dermatomyositis?
What are the key features of Dermatomyositis?
What is the rash location for Psoriatic Arthritis?
What are the key features of Psoriatic Arthritis?
What is the rash location for Rheumatic Fever?
What are the key features of Rheumatic Fever?
What is the rash location for Reactive Arthritis?
What are the key features of Reactive Arthritis?
What is the rash location for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What are the key features of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What is the rash location for Scleroderma (Systemic)?
What are the key features of Scleroderma?
What is the rash location for Cutaneous Vasculitis?
What are the key features of Cutaneous Vasculitis?
What is the rash location for Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)?
What are the key features of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)?
What is the rash location for Gout (Tophaceous)?
What are the key features of Gout (Tophaceous)?
What is the rash location for Behçet Syndrome?
What are the key features of Behçet Syndrome?
What is the rash location for Sarcoidosis?
What are the key features of Sarcoidosis?
What is the rash location for Vasculitis (Polyarteritis Nodosa)?
What are the key features of Vasculitis (Polyarteritis Nodosa)?
What is the rash location for Sjogren Syndrome?
What are the key features of Sjogren Syndrome?
What is the rash location for Erythema Multiforme?
What are the key features of Erythema Multiforme?
What is the rash location for Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)?
What are the key features of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)?
What is the rash location for Pemphigus Vulgaris?
What are the key features of Pemphigus Vulgaris?
What is the rash location for Bullous Pemphigoid?
What are the key features of Bullous Pemphigoid?
What is the rash location for Erythema Nodosum?
What are the key features of Erythema Nodosum?
What is the rash location for SLE (Subacute Cutaneous)?
What are the key features of SLE (Subacute Cutaneous)?
What is the rash location for Psoriasis (Inverse)?
What are the characteristics of SLE (Subacute Cutaneous)?
What are the features of Psoriasis (Inverse)?
What is erythema nodosum associated with?
What are specific rashes for dermatomyositis?
What does palpable purpura indicate?
What is a key differentiator for SLE-related rashes?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Beta-Lactams?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Macrolides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Fluoroquinolones?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Tetracyclines?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Sulfonamides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Aminoglycosides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antifungals?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antivirals?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antiparasitics?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Immunomodulators?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antineoplastics?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Anticoagulants?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Diuretics?
What is a connection across drug classes regarding Beta-lactams?
What is a treatment evolution trend for gonorrhea?
What is an expanding role of antifungals?
What are Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors examples?
What do Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors target?
Broad-spectrum coverage; includes resistant organisms like MSSA, anaerobes, and gram-negatives.
What are the examples of Anti-Leprosy Drugs?
What do Anti-Leprosy Drugs target?
Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy), dermatitis herpetiformis (dapsone).
What is an example of Advanced Macrolides?
Fidaxomicin
What does Fidaxomicin target?
C. difficile infections (narrow-spectrum targeting of C. diff).
What are examples of Extended Cephalosporins?
What do Extended Cephalosporins cover?
Broad gram-negative coverage; cefepime includes Pseudomonas.
What is an example of Carbapenem/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitor?
Meropenem-Vaborbactam
What do Carbapenem/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors target?
Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacterales (CRE).
What is an example of Specialized Tetracyclines?
Tigecycline
What do Specialized Tetracyclines target?
MDR infections including MRSA, Acinetobacter, and resistant gram-negatives.
What is an example of Lincosamides?
Clindamycin
What do Lincosamides target?
Anaerobic infections, aspiration pneumonia, gram-positive soft tissue infections.
What is an example of Advanced Quinolones?
Delafloxacin
What do Advanced Quinolones target?
MRSA, Pseudomonas, complicated skin infections.
What is an example of Specialized Antifungals?
Posaconazole
What do Specialized Antifungals target?
Prophylaxis in high-risk immunocompromised patients (e.g., leukemia, transplant).
What is an example of Nitroimidazoles?
Tinidazole
What do Nitroimidazoles target?
Trichomoniasis, giardiasis, amebiasis (alternative to metronidazole).
What is an example of Rifamycin Derivatives?
Rifaximin
What do Rifamycin Derivatives target?
Traveler's diarrhea, hepatic encephalopathy prevention, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO).
What is an example of Antiviral Combinations?
Ledipasvir-Sofosbuvir
What do Antiviral Combinations target?
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection (specific genotypes).
What are examples of Anti-HIV Regimens?
What do Anti-HIV Regimens target?
ART combinations targeting reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease inhibitors.
What are examples of Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents?
What do Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents target?
Anemia in CKD, chemotherapy-induced anemia.
What is an example of Biologics (IL-5 Inhibitors)?
Mepolizumab
What do Biologics (IL-5 Inhibitors) target?
Severe eosinophilic asthma.
What are examples of Calcineurin Inhibitors?
What do Calcineurin Inhibitors target?
Transplant rejection prophylaxis, autoimmune diseases (e.g., psoriasis).
What is an example of PARP Inhibitors?
Olaparib
What do PARP Inhibitors target?
BRCA-mutated ovarian and breast cancers.
What is an example of Monoclonal Antibodies (Oncology)?
Trastuzumab
What do Monoclonal Antibodies (Oncology) target?
HER2-positive breast and gastric cancers.
What are examples of Antihyperlipidemic Agents?
What do Antihyperlipidemic Agents target?
Hyperlipidemia; adjunct in familial hypercholesterolemia; pruritus in cholestasis.
What are examples of Iron Chelators?
What do Iron Chelators target?
Iron overload (e.g., secondary to frequent transfusions in thalassemia or sickle cell anemia).
What are examples of Anti-Spasticity Agents?
What do Anti-Spasticity Agents target?
Spasticity due to multiple sclerosis or spinal cord injury.
What is an example of Prostaglandin Analogues?
Misoprostol
What do Prostaglandin Analogues target?
NSAID-induced gastric ulcers, labor induction, postpartum hemorrhage.
What is a treatment for Burkholderia pseudomallei?
Treat melioidosis with ceftazidime or meropenem.
What is a treatment for Talaromycosis?
Treat with amphotericin B and itraconazole.
What is a last-line therapy for advanced resistance management?
Colistin/Polymyxin B for extensively drug-resistant gram-negative infections.
What are safe drugs for pregnancy-specific medications?
Highlight safe drugs for infectious and autoimmune diseases (e.g., nitrofurantoin, azathioprine).
What are examples of Beta-Lactams?
What diseases are targeted by Ceftazidime and Meropenem?
What are examples of Aminoglycosides?
What diseases are treated with Streptomycin and Gentamicin?
What is an example of Tetracyclines?
What diseases are targeted by Doxycycline?
What is an example of Oxazolidinones?
What diseases are treated with Linezolid?
What are examples of Polymyxins?
What types of infections are targeted by Colistin and Polymyxin B?
What is an example of Antiparasitics?
What diseases are treated with Ivermectin?
What is an example of Antifungals?
What is the use of Posaconazole?
Prophylaxis in high-risk immunocompromised patients
What is an example of Rifamycin Derivatives?
What diseases are treated with Rifaximin?
What is an example of Monoclonal Antibodies?
What diseases are targeted by Bevacizumab?
What is an example of Interleukin Inhibitors?
What diseases are treated with Dupilumab?
What is an example of Targeted Therapies?
What cancers are treated with Olaparib?
What is an example of Cytokine Inhibitors?
What conditions are treated with Tocilizumab?
What is an example of Hepatitis C Antivirals?
What does Sofosbuvir/Ledipasvir treat?
Chronic HCV infection; specific to genotype and stage
What is an example of COVID-19 Treatment?
What is the use of Tecovirimat?
Antiviral for monkeypox outbreaks
What is an example of Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors?
What is targeted by Meropenem-Vaborbactam?
Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacterales (CRE)
What is an example of Fluoroquinolones?
What does Delafloxacin cover?
Broad-spectrum coverage, including MRSA and complicated skin infections
What is an example of Macrolides?
What does Fidaxomicin treat?
C. difficile infections; alternative to vancomycin for severe or recurrent cases
What is an example of Tetracyclines?
What infections are treated with Tigecycline?
MDR infections, including Acinetobacter, Klebsiella, and MRSA
What is an example of Antiparasitics (Extended)?
What does Nitazoxanide treat?
Cryptosporidium and Giardia, especially in immunocompromised patients
What is an example of Antifungal?
What conditions are treated with Isavuconazole?
Invasive aspergillosis, mucormycosis
What is an example of Rifamycin Derivatives?
What does Rifapentine treat?
Latent tuberculosis in combination with isoniazid (weekly regimen)
What is an example of Hepatitis C Therapy?
What is the benefit of Glecaprevir/Pibrentasvir?
Pan-genotypic treatment for HCV
What is an example of Antiviral (CMV)?
What is the use of Letermovir?
CMV prophylaxis in transplant recipients
What is an example of Immunotherapy?
What does Ipilimumab treat?
CTLA-4 inhibitor for metastatic melanoma
What is an example of Calcineurin Inhibitors?
What is the use of Voclosporin?
Lupus nephritis; safer profile compared to tacrolimus
What is an example of Monoclonal Antibodies (IL-23 Inhibitors)?
What does Risankizumab treat?
Psoriasis; high efficacy for achieving skin clearance
What is an example of Anticoagulants?
What is the use of Andexanet alfa?
Reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban)
What are the key features of the omissions chart?
What rare diseases are critical to include?
What emerging treatments are relevant for outbreak-related questions?
What drugs are used for multidrug-resistant organisms (MDR)?
What is the high efficacy treatment for psoriasis?
Risankizumab
What is Andexanet alfa used for?
Reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban).
What do tigecycline and delafloxacin do?
Expand options for multidrug-resistant pathogens.
What does rifapentine simplify?
Simplifies latent TB treatment with a weekly dosing regimen.
What does voclosporin improve?
Improves safety in lupus nephritis treatment.
What are IL-23 inhibitors effective for?
Highly effective for psoriasis.
What does isavuconazole treat?
Addresses severe fungal infections like aspergillosis.
What is letermovir used for?
Offers targeted CMV prophylaxis in immunocompromised populations.
What does S1 heart sound indicate?
Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves.
What conditions are associated with S1?
Normal; accentuated in mitral stenosis.
How does S1 change with preload?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting).
What does S2 heart sound indicate?
Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves.
How does S2 change during inspiration?
Normal; split during inspiration.
What does S3 heart sound indicate?
Low-frequency sound after S2.
What conditions are associated with S3?
CHF, dilated cardiomyopathy; normal in young athletes or pregnancy.
How does S3 change with position?
Louder in left lateral decubitus position; decreased with standing.
What does S4 heart sound indicate?
Low-frequency sound before S1.
What conditions are associated with S4?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, aortic stenosis, hypertension.
How does S4 change with preload?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting); absent in atrial fibrillation.
What is an ejection click?
High-pitched sound during systole.
What conditions are associated with ejection click?
Aortic or pulmonary stenosis.
How does ejection click change with position?
Louder with squatting; softer with Valsalva.
What is an opening snap?
High-pitched sound during diastole.
What condition is associated with opening snap?
Mitral stenosis; timing correlates with severity.
How does opening snap change with preload?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting).
What is mitral regurgitation?
Holosystolic murmur radiating to axilla.
What conditions are associated with mitral regurgitation?
Mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, ischemic heart disease.
How does mitral regurgitation change with position?
Louder with squatting; softer with standing or Valsalva.
What is aortic stenosis?
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to carotids.
What conditions are associated with aortic stenosis?
Calcific valve disease, congenital bicuspid valve.
How does aortic stenosis change with position?
Louder with squatting; decreased with Valsalva or standing.
What is aortic regurgitation?
Early diastolic decrescendo murmur.
What conditions are associated with aortic regurgitation?
Infective endocarditis, aortic dissection, rheumatic disease.
How does aortic regurgitation change with position?
Louder with squatting and expiration; softer with standing.
What is mitral stenosis?
Diastolic rumble with opening snap.
What conditions are associated with mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic fever; often follows atrial fibrillation.
How does mitral stenosis change with position?
Louder in left lateral decubitus; softer with standing.
What is tricuspid regurgitation?
Holosystolic murmur increasing with inspiration.
What conditions are associated with tricuspid regurgitation?
Right heart failure, infective endocarditis (IV drug use).
How does tricuspid regurgitation change with position?
Louder with inspiration; softer with expiration.
What is pulmonary stenosis?
Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur.
What conditions are associated with pulmonary stenosis?
Congenital valve abnormalities, carcinoid syndrome.
How does pulmonary stenosis change with position?
Louder with inspiration.
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur without radiation.
What conditions are associated with HCM?
Genetic (sarcomere protein mutations); young athletes.
How does HCM change with position?
Louder with Valsalva or standing; softer with squatting.
What is ventricular septal defect (VSD)?
Holosystolic murmur at left sternal border.
What conditions are associated with VSD?
Congenital; associated with Down syndrome.
How does VSD change with position?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting).
What is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?
Continuous 'machinery' murmur.
What conditions are associated with PDA?
Congenital; often in premature infants or congenital rubella.
What is the murmur associated with Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Continuous 'machinery' murmur
When is the PDA murmur louder?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting)
What is the sound associated with Pericardial Friction Rub?
Scratchy, high-pitched sound during systole and diastole
When is the Pericardial Friction Rub best heard?
Best heard leaning forward; unaffected by positional changes
What are the key patterns for systolic murmurs?
Change with Valsalva or squatting
What do diastolic murmurs often indicate?
Indicate severe valvular disease
What happens to murmurs during squatting?
Increases preload, amplifying most murmurs except HCM
What effect does the Valsalva maneuver have on murmurs?
Decreases preload, enhancing murmurs like HCM while softening others
What is the description of Wheezes?
High-pitched, continuous, musical sounds during expiration (or inspiration)
What conditions are associated with Wheezes?
Asthma, COPD, bronchospasm, foreign body obstruction
What is the description of Rhonchi?
Low-pitched, continuous, snoring-like sounds
What conditions are associated with Rhonchi?
Bronchitis, pneumonia, secretions in larger airways
What is the description of Crackles (Rales)?
Discontinuous, popping sounds during inspiration
What conditions are associated with Fine Crackles?
Interstitial lung disease, CHF
What conditions are associated with Coarse Crackles?
Pneumonia, pulmonary edema
What is the description of Stridor?
High-pitched, harsh sound during inspiration
What conditions are associated with Stridor?
Upper airway obstruction: croup, epiglottitis, foreign body
What is the description of Pleural Friction Rub?
Creaking or grating sound during both phases of respiration
What conditions are associated with Pleural Friction Rub?
Pleuritis, pulmonary embolism, pleural effusion
What does Decreased or Absent Breath Sounds indicate?
Reduced or no sound over a lung area
What conditions are associated with Decreased or Absent Breath Sounds?
Pneumothorax, pleural effusion, atelectasis, severe COPD
What is the description of Bronchial Breath Sounds?
Hollow, tubular sounds over consolidated lung areas
What conditions are associated with Bronchial Breath Sounds?
Pneumonia with consolidation, lung abscess
What is Egophony?
'E' to 'A' sound change on auscultation
What does Egophony indicate?
Lung consolidation (e.g., pneumonia)
What is Bronchophony?
Increased clarity of spoken words
What does Bronchophony indicate?
Lung consolidation or mass
What is Whispered Pectoriloquy?
Increased clarity of whispered sounds
What does Whispered Pectoriloquy indicate?
Lung consolidation or mass
What are Amphoric Breath Sounds?
Hollow, metallic sounds heard over large airways
What conditions are associated with Amphoric Breath Sounds?
Large lung cavity, tension pneumothorax
What do continuous sounds like wheezes and rhonchi indicate?
Indicate airway issues
What do discontinuous sounds like crackles point to?
Point to fluid or fibrosis in alveoli
What enhances egophony, bronchophony, and whispered pectoriloquy?
Consolidation
What does decreased or absent breath sounds suggest?
Suggest physical obstruction or collapse
What position enhances detection of lower lobe abnormalities?
Sitting upright
How can you differentiate pleural rub from a pericardial rub?
Ask the patient to hold their breath
What is the description of Inspiratory Wheezes?
High-pitched, musical sounds primarily on inspiration
What conditions are associated with Inspiratory Wheezes?
Tracheal stenosis, laryngomalacia, severe asthma
What are Post-tussive Crackles?
Crackles heard after coughing
What are Post-tussive Crackles classic for?
Classic for tuberculosis (TB); also seen in bronchiectasis
What are Squawk sounds?
Short, musical sound superimposed on crackles
What conditions are associated with Squawk sounds?
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis, interstitial lung diseases
What are Fine Velcro Crackles?
Soft, high-pitched crackles during inspiration
What conditions are associated with Fine Velcro Crackles?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; hallmark of restrictive lung diseases
What are Bubbling Sounds?
Low-pitched, gurgling noise
What are the soft, high-pitched crackles during inspiration indicative of?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; hallmark of restrictive lung diseases.
What do bubbling sounds resemble and indicate?
Low-pitched, gurgling noises; indicative of severe pulmonary edema or drowning.
What does tracheal tugging sound indicate?
Inspiratory stridor associated with upper airway obstruction, croup, or retrosternal goiter.
What is the death rattle?
Gurgling sounds during terminal stages of life; accumulation of secretions in upper airways.
What are post-tussive crackles a clue for?
They are a subtle but high-yield clue for TB or bronchiectasis.
What is the significance of dynamic maneuvers in lung sound assessment?
Enhances detection of conditions like pleural effusion and pulmonary edema.
What is the dermatome for C3?
Neck; sensory over lateral neck; limited neck flexion if affected.
What is the myotome for C4?
Shoulder elevation; difficulty with shrugging shoulders.
What is the key clinical feature for C5?
Weak deltoid; diminished biceps reflex.
What does C6 affect?
Lateral forearm and thumb; elbow flexion, wrist extension; sensory loss in thumb area.
What is the myotome for C7?
Elbow extension, wrist flexion; weak triceps reflex; sensory loss in middle finger.
What does C8 affect?
Medial forearm and pinky finger; finger flexion; weak grip strength.
What is the myotome for T1?
Finger abduction/adduction; difficulty with interossei muscles (e.g., spreading fingers).
What does T4 correspond to?
Nipple line; sensory loss at nipple line; useful in spinal cord level mapping.
What is the dermatome for T10?
Umbilicus; sensory loss at umbilicus; landmark for abdominal surgeries or spinal injury.
What is the myotome for L1?
Hip flexion; weak iliopsoas; sensory loss in groin.
What does L5 affect?
Lateral lower leg, dorsum of foot; great toe extension; sensory loss on foot dorsum.
What is the myotome for S2-S4?
Anal sphincter control; loss of bowel/bladder function; saddle anesthesia.
What is a key point about dermatomal overlap?
Adjacent dermatomes overlap, making pure sensory loss uncommon.
What is cauda equina syndrome?
Involves S2-S4 with saddle anesthesia and incontinence.
What is a high-yield test for L5?
Great toe extension.
What is saddle anesthesia associated with?
Incontinence
What test is used for L5 myotome?
Great toe extension
What test is used for T1 myotome?
Finger abduction
What are the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg?
What nerve is associated with the anterior compartment of the leg?
Deep fibular (peroneal) nerve
What artery/vein is associated with the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior tibial artery/vein
What is a key clinical relevance of the anterior compartment?
Foot drop in deep fibular nerve injury; tested via dorsiflexion of foot.
What are the muscles in the lateral compartment of the leg?
What nerve is associated with the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve
What is a key clinical relevance of the lateral compartment?
Eversion weakness with superficial fibular nerve injury; sensory loss over dorsum of foot.
What are the muscles in the superficial posterior compartment of the leg?
What nerve is associated with the superficial posterior compartment of the leg?
Tibial nerve
What is a key clinical relevance of the superficial posterior compartment?
Plantarflexion weakness in tibial nerve injury; tested by toe walking.
What are the muscles in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
What nerve is associated with the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
Tibial nerve
What artery/vein is associated with the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
What is a key clinical relevance of the deep posterior compartment?
Pain and swelling in compartment syndrome; tested by plantarflexion or inversion of foot.
What is the most common compartment syndrome?
Anterior compartment syndrome
What are the 5 Ps of compartment syndrome?
What is the function of CD19 in B cells?
Markers for B cell lineage; targeted by rituximab (anti-CD20).
What is the role of CD21 in B cells?
Complement receptor; site of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) entry into B cells.
What do IgM and IgD represent in B cells?
B cell receptor for antigen; initiates activation.
What is the function of CD40 in B cells?
Interacts with CD40L on T helper cells for class switching.
What is the role of MHC II in B cells?
Presents antigen to T helper cells (CD4+).
What does CD80/86 (B7) do in B cells?
Provides co-stimulatory signals for T cell activation.
What is the function of CD4 in T helper cells?
Co-receptor for MHC II; essential for T helper cell activation.
What is the role of CD40L (CD154) in T helper cells?
Activates B cells via CD40 interaction; key in immunoglobulin class switching.
What does CD28 do in T helper cells?
Binds CD80/86 on APCs for co-stimulation.
What are the co-receptors for HIV entry in T helper cells?
What is the function of CD3 in T cells?
Part of the TCR complex; critical for T cell signaling.
What is the role of CD8 in cytotoxic T cells?
Co-receptor for MHC I; mediates cytotoxic responses.
What do Perforin and Granzyme receptors do in cytotoxic T cells?
Induce apoptosis in target cells.
What is the function of CD4, CD25, FOXP3 in regulatory T cells?
Suppress immune responses; FOXP3 mutations cause IPEX syndrome.
What is the function of CD16 (FcγRIII) in natural killer cells?
Recognizes antibodies for antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity.
What do Granzyme Receptors induce in target cells?
Apoptosis
Which cells are characterized by CD4, CD25, FOXP3?
Regulatory T Cells
What syndrome is caused by FOXP3 mutations?
IPEX syndrome
What is the function of CD16 on Natural Killer Cells?
Binds Fc portion of IgG for ADCC
What marker is associated with NK cells?
CD56
What does NKG2D recognize?
Stress-induced ligands (e.g., MICA, MICB)
What does CD14 bind to in macrophages?
LPS
What is the role of MHC II?
Presents antigen to CD4+ T cells
What do Fcγ Receptors bind?
Antibodies
What does CD1 present?
Lipid antigens to NKT cells
What are CD80/86 (B7)?
Co-stimulatory molecules for T cell activation
What does CCR7 guide?
Migration to lymph nodes for antigen presentation
What differentiates B cells?
CD19 and CD20
What does Rituximab target?
CD20 for B cell malignancies
What receptors does HIV exploit?
CCR5 and CXCR4
What causes Hyper-IgM syndrome?
Lack of CD40/CD40L interaction
What is the function of CD22 in B cells?
Inhibitory receptor regulating activation
What does the BAFF Receptor promote?
B cell survival
What is the role of ICOS in T Helper Cells?
Enhances T cell-dependent B cell responses
What does PD-1 inhibit?
Restores T cell activity in cancer immunotherapy
What does Fas Ligand (CD95L) induce?
Apoptosis via Fas receptor
What is the role of CTLA-4 in Regulatory T Cells?
Dampens T cell responses
What do KIR receptors prevent?
Killing of self-cells by recognizing MHC I
What does CD163 bind to?
Hemoglobin-haptoglobin complexes
What do Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs) detect?
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns
What is the function of CD11c in Dendritic Cells?
Marker for myeloid dendritic cells
What does DEC-205 (CD205) facilitate?
Antigen uptake and processing
What is the role of CD18 in Neutrophils?
Required for adhesion and migration
What does CD11b aid in?
Opsonization and phagocytosis
What does CCR3 guide in Eosinophils?
Migration in response to eotaxins
What does GPIb/IX/V bind to?
von Willebrand factor
What is the function of GPIIb/IIIa in Platelets?
Binds fibrinogen during aggregation
What is a clinical application of PD-1?
Targeted in cancer therapy
What disease is related to CD18 defects?
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
What can dysregulation of Fas-FasL (CD95) lead to?
Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)
What can dysregulation of Fas-FasL (CD95) lead to?
Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome (ALPS)
What are the critical platelet receptors for hemostasis?
What is the function of CD34 in hematopoietic stem cells?
Marker for identifying stem cells; critical in stem cell transplants.
What role does CCR5 play in macrophages?
HIV entry co-receptor; facilitates viral infection in macrophages.
What is the function of CD11c in dendritic cells?
Myeloid dendritic cell marker; essential for antigen presentation.
What is the role of DEC-205 (CD205) in dendritic cells?
Facilitates antigen uptake and presentation.
What is the function of CD16b in neutrophils?
Low-affinity Fc receptor for IgG; involved in antibody-mediated phagocytosis.
What do NKG2C/NKG2D receptors recognize?
Stress-induced ligands on infected/tumor cells; enhances cytotoxicity.
What does CD57 indicate in NK cells?
Marker for mature NK cells with reduced proliferative capacity.
What is the function of CTLA-4 in regulatory T cells?
Immune checkpoint molecule; downregulates immune responses.
What role does CD42b (GpIb) play in platelets?
Binds von Willebrand factor; essential for platelet adhesion during hemostasis.
What does CD62P (P-selectin) mediate in platelets?
Mediates platelet interaction with leukocytes and endothelial cells.
What do VEGF receptors (VEGFR-1, VEGFR-2) stimulate?
Stimulate angiogenesis; targeted by bevacizumab in cancer therapy.
What is the function of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in endothelial cells?
Facilitate leukocyte adhesion and transmigration; upregulated in inflammation.
What do endothelin receptors (ETA, ETB) mediate?
Mediate vasoconstriction; endothelin antagonists used for pulmonary hypertension.
What is the function of EGFR (HER1) in epithelial cells?
Promotes cell proliferation; targeted by cetuximab in cancers.
What do integrins (e.g., α6β4) do in epithelial cells?
Anchor epithelial cells to basement membrane; mutations linked to cancer metastasis.
What does the Angiotensin II Receptor (AT1) promote in smooth muscle cells?
Promotes vasoconstriction and aldosterone release; blocked by ARBs.
What do β-Adrenergic Receptors (β1, β2) regulate in smooth muscle cells?
Regulate contraction; β2 agonists relax airway smooth muscle in asthma.
What is the role of β1-Adrenergic Receptors in cardiac myocytes?
Increase heart rate and contractility; β-blockers reduce workload in CHF.
What do Muscarinic Receptors (M2) do in cardiac myocytes?
Decrease heart rate; blocked by atropine in bradycardia.
What does the Insulin Receptor stimulate in hepatocytes?
Stimulates glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis; defective in type 2 diabetes.
What is the function of the LDL Receptor in hepatocytes?
Mediates cholesterol uptake; mutations cause familial hypercholesterolemia.
What does the Glucagon Receptor promote in hepatocytes?
Promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis; critical in fasting state.
What does the Leptin Receptor (ObR) regulate in adipocytes?
Regulates appetite and energy balance; mutations linked to obesity.
What do Beta-Adrenergic Receptors (β1, β3) stimulate in adipocytes?
Stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.
What does the Leptin Receptor (ObR) regulate?
What are mutations in the Leptin Receptor linked to?
What do Beta-Adrenergic Receptors (β1, β3) stimulate?
What do Vasopressin Receptors (V2) regulate?
What are antagonists of Vasopressin Receptors (V2) used for?
What is the function of the Mineralocorticoid Receptor (MR)?
What is a clinical use of Mineralocorticoid Receptor antagonists?
What does the Erythropoietin Receptor stimulate?
What activates the Erythropoietin Receptor?
What does the RANK receptor promote in bone cells?
What is the clinical relevance of RANK inhibitors?
What does the PTH Receptor (PTH1R) stimulate in osteoblasts?
What activates the PTH Receptor for osteoporosis?
What does the NMDA Receptor mediate in neurons?
What is linked to overactivation of the NMDA Receptor?
What type of receptor is the GABA-A Receptor?
What are benzodiazepines used for in relation to GABA-A Receptors?
What does the TSH Receptor stimulate?
What condition is associated with hyperactive TSH Receptor?
What does the ACTH Receptor (MC2R) stimulate?
What disease is associated with a defective ACTH Receptor?
What do angiotensin receptors target in hypertension?
What are RANK inhibitors used for?
What does LDL receptor defects cause?
What is TSH receptor hyperactivity central to?
What do VEGF receptors block to prevent?
What do GABA-A receptors modulate in treatment?
What do Cadherins form in epithelial cells?
What are mutations in E-cadherin linked to?
What do Desmosomes provide?
What are targeted by autoantibodies in pemphigus vulgaris?
What do Integrins facilitate?
What do tight junctions form in endothelial cells?
What are claudin mutations linked to?
What do Scavenger Receptors (SR-BI) uptake?
What do defects in Scavenger Receptors impact?
What do L-type Calcium Channels regulate?
What are targeted by calcium channel blockers?
What do M3 Muscarinic Receptors mediate?
What are targeted by antimuscarinics?
What do claudins in tight junctions regulate?
What can claudin mutations cause?
What is targeted by loop diuretics?
What does the Insulin Receptor Substrate-1 (IRS-1) regulate?
What do mutations in IRS-1 contribute to?
What do desmosomes provide?
Structural integrity
What condition is caused by the disruption of desmosomes?
Pemphigus
What are scavenger receptors (SR-BI) critical for?
Cholesterol homeostasis
What do IRS-1 mutations contribute to?
Type 2 diabetes via impaired insulin signaling
What are L-type calcium channels treated with?
Blockers for cardiovascular diseases
What targets NKCC in renal cells?
Loop diuretics for managing volume overload
What is the normal heart rate (HR) range?
60–100 bpm
What indicates bradycardia?
Heart rate <60 bpm
What indicates tachycardia?
Heart rate >100 bpm
What is a normal sinus rhythm characterized by?
P wave before every QRS
What is the characteristic of atrial fibrillation?
Irregularly irregular rhythm
What is the normal duration of a P wave?
<120 ms
What does a prolonged PR interval indicate?
AV block (1st, 2nd, or 3rd degree)
What is the normal QRS duration?
<120 ms
What does a wide QRS indicate?
Bundle branch block, ventricular rhythms
What is the normal ST segment?
Isoelectric (flat)
What does ST elevation indicate?
STEMI
What is the normal QTc interval for men?
<440 ms
What does a prolonged QT indicate?
Torsades de pointes
What is a left axis deviation associated with?
LVH, inferior MI
What does low voltage in QRS indicate?
Pericardial effusion
What does ST elevation in ≥2 contiguous leads indicate?
Acute MI; infarct location
What is the clinical relevance of Atrial Fibrillation?
Risk of thromboembolism
What does WPW Syndrome present with?
Delta wave, short PR interval
What is the clinical significance of Torsades de Pointes?
Life-threatening arrhythmia
What does hyperkalemia show on an ECG?
Peaked T waves, wide QRS
What is indicated by hypokalemia on an ECG?
U waves, flat/inverted T waves
What does Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB) indicate?
May mask ischemia; associated with structural heart disease
What does pericarditis show on an ECG?
Diffuse ST elevation, PR depression
What is the key feature of STEMI?
How is inferior MI localized?
What are the key features of NSTEMI/Ischemia?
What does hyperkalemia show on an ECG?
What are the key features of hypokalemia?
What is the clinical relevance of Atrial Fibrillation?
What are the key features of WPW syndrome?
What is Torsades de Pointes characterized by?
What indicates a Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB)?
What is a common pitfall in reading ECG?
What is the clinical relevance of neural tube defects (NTDs)?
What are Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) caused by?
Failure of neural tube closure
What are the clinical presentations of Neural Tube Defects?
What are examples of Neural Tube Defects?
What causes Gastroschisis?
Failure of lateral body fold closure
What is the clinical presentation of Gastroschisis?
Intestines protrude through abdominal wall, no peritoneal covering
Is Gastroschisis associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
Not associated with chromosomal abnormalities
What causes Omphalocele?
Failure of midgut herniation return
What is the clinical presentation of Omphalocele?
Intestines protrude into umbilical sac, covered by peritoneum
Is Omphalocele associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
Associated with chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., trisomy 13, 18)
What causes Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF)?
Abnormal separation of foregut
What are the clinical presentations of Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF)?
What is the most common type of TEF?
Esophageal atresia with distal TEF
What causes Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)?
Failure of pleuroperitoneal membrane fusion
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)?
What is the most common type of CDH?
Bochdalek hernia (posterolateral defect)
What causes Tetralogy of Fallot?
Abnormal neural crest migration
What are the clinical presentations of Tetralogy of Fallot?
What are the components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
What causes Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?
Failure of truncal ridges to divide
What are the clinical presentations of Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?
What is Persistent Truncus Arteriosus associated with?
Strong association with DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion)
What causes Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Failure of spiral septum formation
What are the clinical presentations of Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Cyanosis; survival depends on shunts (PDA, ASD, or VSD)
What is a risk factor for Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Maternal diabetes
What causes Hirschsprung Disease?
Failure of neural crest cell migration
What are the clinical presentations of Hirschsprung Disease?
What is Hirschsprung Disease associated with?
Associated with RET mutation, Down syndrome
What causes Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?
Enzyme deficiency in cortisol synthesis
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?
What is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?
21-hydroxylase deficiency
What is the VACTERL Association?
Multifactorial condition with multiple anomalies
What are the components of VACTERL Association?
How is VACTERL Association diagnosed?
Diagnosis based on 3+ anomalies
What causes Duodenal Atresia?
Failure of recanalization
What are the clinical presentations of Duodenal Atresia?
What is Duodenal Atresia associated with?
Associated with Down syndrome
What causes Congenital Hypothyroidism?
Thyroid dysgenesis or dyshormonogenesis
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Hypothyroidism?
How can Congenital Hypothyroidism be prevented?
Preventable with neonatal screening
What causes Meckel’s Diverticulum?
Persistence of vitelline duct
What are the clinical presentations of Meckel’s Diverticulum?
What is present in Meckel’s Diverticulum?
Ectopic gastric or pancreatic tissue
What is Potter Sequence caused by?
Oligohydramnios (renal agenesis or obstruction)
What are the clinical presentations of Potter Sequence?
What is the outcome if bilateral renal agenesis is present in Potter Sequence?
Fatal if bilateral renal agenesis is present
What causes Holoprosencephaly?
Failure of forebrain division
What are the clinical presentations of Holoprosencephaly?
What is Holoprosencephaly associated with?
Associated with trisomy 13, maternal alcohol use
What causes Cleft Lip and Palate?
Failure of maxillary and/or palatine fusion
What are the clinical presentations of Cleft Lip and Palate?
What is the fusion involved in Cleft Lip?
Cleft lip: maxillary + medial nasal prominence
What is the fusion involved in Cleft Palate?
Cleft palate: lateral palatine shelves
What genetic syndrome is associated with outflow tract defects?
DiGeorge syndrome
What conditions are linked to Down syndrome?
What is a common diagnostic clue for TEF, duodenal atresia, and anencephaly?
Polyhydramnios
What is the classic sign for duodenal atresia on X-ray?
Double bubble sign
How can neural tube defects be prevented?
Preventable with maternal folic acid supplementation
How can congenital hypothyroidism be treated?
Treatable with early thyroid hormone replacement
What is the cause of pyloric stenosis?
Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter
What is a clinical presentation of pyloric stenosis?
Non-bilious projectile vomiting, olive-shaped abdominal mass
What does annular pancreas result from?
Abnormal rotation of the ventral pancreatic bud
What is a clinical presentation of annular pancreas?
Duodenal obstruction, bilious vomiting
What is the association of annular pancreas?
Associated with Down syndrome and pancreatitis
What causes pancreas divisum?
Failure of dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds to fuse
What is the typical symptom of pancreas divisum?
Usually asymptomatic; recurrent pancreatitis in some cases
What is the cause of hypospadias?
Incomplete fusion of urethral folds
What is a clinical presentation of hypospadias?
Ventral opening of the urethra
What are the associations of hypospadias?
Associated with cryptorchidism and inguinal hernias
What causes epispadias?
Faulty positioning of the genital tubercle
What is a clinical presentation of epispadias?
Dorsal opening of the urethra
What is the association of epispadias?
Associated with bladder exstrophy
What causes a branchial cleft cyst?
Persistent cervical sinus
What is a clinical presentation of a branchial cleft cyst?
Painless lateral neck mass; does not move with swallowing
What causes cleft lip and palate?
Failure of fusion of facial prominences
What are the clinical presentations of cleft lip and palate?
Feeding difficulties, nasal regurgitation
What are the components of cleft lip and palate?
Cleft lip: Maxillary + medial nasal prominences. Cleft palate: Lateral palatine shelves
What causes DiGeorge syndrome?
Failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development
What are the clinical presentations of DiGeorge syndrome?
Hypocalcemia, T-cell deficiency, cardiac defects
What is the genetic association of DiGeorge syndrome?
22q11.2 deletion syndrome
What causes Ebstein anomaly?
Lithium exposure in utero
What are the clinical presentations of Ebstein anomaly?
Apical displacement of the tricuspid valve, cyanosis, heart failure
What causes bladder exstrophy?
Failure of caudal body fold closure
What is a clinical presentation of bladder exstrophy?
Exposed bladder mucosa
What is the association of bladder exstrophy?
Associated with epispadias
What is a clinical presentation of patent urachus?
Urine discharge from umbilicus
What is the risk associated with patent urachus?
Increased risk of infection and malignancy
What causes patent vitelline duct?
Failure of vitelline duct obliteration
What is a clinical presentation of patent vitelline duct?
Meconium discharge from umbilicus
What is associated with patent vitelline duct?
Associated with Meckel's diverticulum
What is amniotic band syndrome?
Disruption of amniotic sac
What are the clinical presentations of amniotic band syndrome?
Limb or craniofacial deformities
What causes a septate uterus?
Incomplete resorption of the uterine septum
What is a clinical presentation of a septate uterus?
Recurrent pregnancy loss
What corrects a septate uterus?
Corrected by hysteroscopic metroplasty
What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
Vascular anastomoses in monochorionic twins
What are the clinical presentations of twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
Donor twin: anemia, hypovolemia; Recipient twin: polycythemia, CHF
What is the association of twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
Occurs in monochorionic-diamniotic twins
What causes holoprosencephaly?
Failure of forebrain division
What are the clinical presentations of holoprosencephaly?
Range from cyclopia to cleft lip/palate
What is associated with holoprosencephaly?
Associated with trisomy 13, sonic hedgehog mutation
What causes persistent left superior vena cava?
Failure of left cardinal vein regression
What is a clinical presentation of persistent left superior vena cava?
Drains into coronary sinus
What is the symptom of persistent left superior vena cava?
Usually asymptomatic but relevant in central venous access
What is the persistent left superior vena cava?
Failure of left cardinal vein regression. Drains into coronary sinus. Usually asymptomatic but relevant in central venous access.
What is the VACTERL Association?
Multifactorial condition with vertebral defects, anal atresia, cardiac defects, TEF, renal defects, and limb anomalies. Diagnosed when 3+ anomalies are present.
What is caudal regression syndrome?
Abnormal development of the caudal spine, leading to sacral agenesis and lower limb paralysis. Strongly associated with maternal diabetes.
What is a persistent foramen ovale (PFO)?
Failure of septum primum and secundum fusion. Can cause paradoxical embolism and stroke. Often asymptomatic until provoked.
What are urachal and vitelline defects?
Embryological remnants that can lead to clinically significant anomalies.
What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
A high-yield topic for monochorionic pregnancies involving vascular complications.
What is holoprosencephaly?
Genetic mutations (e.g., sonic hedgehog) tied to severe malformations like cyclopia or cleft palate.
What is a urachal cyst?
Partial failure of urachus obliteration, presenting as a midline fluid-filled mass between bladder and umbilicus. Risk for infection and malignancy.
What is a vitelline duct cyst?
Partial failure of vitelline duct obliteration, leading to abdominal pain and risk of volvulus. Can be confused with Meckel’s diverticulum.
What is accessory pancreatic tissue?
Ectopic pancreatic tissue in stomach or duodenum that may cause obstruction or pancreatitis. Detected incidentally or with symptoms.
What is persistent Müllerian duct syndrome?
Failure of Müllerian duct regression in males, resulting in male internal genitalia with a uterus and external male genitalia.
What is 5α-reductase deficiency?
Inability to convert testosterone to DHT, causing ambiguous genitalia in males and masculinization at puberty. XY genotype with normal male internal genitalia.
What is twin reversal arterial perfusion (TRAP)?
Avascular anomaly in monochorionic twins where an acardiac twin depends on a normal twin for circulation. Rare and high-risk condition.
What is Müllerian agenesis?
Failure of paramesonephric duct development, leading to primary amenorrhea and normal secondary sexual characteristics. Also called Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome.
What is jejunal and ileal atresia?
Vascular disruption during development causing bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. 'Apple peel' deformity on imaging; associated with cystic fibrosis.
What is a single umbilical artery?
Failure of umbilical artery to form, associated with congenital or chromosomal abnormalities. Seen on fetal ultrasound.
What are the histological characteristics of Simple Squamous Epithelium?
Single layer of flat cells
Where is Simple Squamous Epithelium located?
Alveoli, endothelium, mesothelium
What conditions are associated with Simple Squamous Epithelium?
ARDS, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, atherosclerosis
What is a key function of Simple Squamous Epithelium?
Common in structures requiring diffusion (e.g., alveoli in gas exchange)
What are the histological characteristics of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Multiple layers with surface keratin
Where is Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized) located?
Skin, oral cavity
What conditions are associated with Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Psoriasis, actinic keratosis, squamous cell carcinoma
What is a key function of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Provides robust protection; keratinization prevents water loss
What are the histological characteristics of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Multiple layers without keratin
Where is Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized) located?
Esophagus, vagina, cornea
What conditions are associated with Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Barrett’s esophagus, esophagitis, vaginal atrophy
What is a key transformation related to Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Transforms to columnar epithelium in Barrett’s due to chronic acid exposure
What are the histological characteristics of Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Appears stratified; all cells touch the basement membrane
Where is Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium located?
Trachea, upper respiratory tract
What conditions are associated with Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Chronic bronchitis, smoking-induced metaplasia, Kartagener syndrome
What is a key effect of smoking on Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Smoking transforms it to squamous epithelium
What are the histological characteristics of Transitional Epithelium?
Stratified with dome-shaped apical cells
Where is Transitional Epithelium located?
Bladder, ureters, renal pelvis
What conditions are associated with Transitional Epithelium?
Urothelial carcinoma, interstitial cystitis
What is a key function of Transitional Epithelium?
Specialized for stretch in urinary tract; common site for cancer
What are the histological characteristics of Cuboidal Epithelium?
Cube-shaped cells
Where is Cuboidal Epithelium located?
Glands (e.g., salivary), renal tubules
What conditions are associated with Cuboidal Epithelium?
Renal tubular necrosis, Sjögren syndrome
What is a key feature of Cuboidal Epithelium?
Found in glandular and absorptive tissues; prone to autoimmune and ischemic damage
What are the histological characteristics of Columnar Epithelium?
Tall cells with basally located nuclei
Where is Columnar Epithelium located?
Stomach, intestines
What conditions are associated with Columnar Epithelium?
Adenocarcinoma, chronic gastritis
What is a key function of Columnar Epithelium?
Goblet cells (intestinal variant) produce mucus; dysplasia leads to malignancy
What are the histological characteristics of Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Dense microvilli on apical surface
Where is Brush Border (Microvilli) located?
Small intestine, proximal tubules of kidney
What conditions are associated with Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Celiac disease, Fanconi syndrome, microvillus inclusion disease
What is a key function of Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Essential for nutrient absorption; damaged in celiac disease (villous atrophy)
What are the histological characteristics of Hyaline Cartilage?
Chondrocytes in lacunae, smooth matrix
Where is Hyaline Cartilage located?
Trachea, articular surfaces, growth plates
What conditions are associated with Hyaline Cartilage?
Osteoarthritis, achondroplasia
What happens to Hyaline Cartilage in wear-and-tear conditions?
Degenerates in wear-and-tear conditions like osteoarthritis
What are the histological characteristics of Elastic Cartilage?
Chondrocytes with elastic fibers
Where is Elastic Cartilage located?
External ear, epiglottis
What conditions are associated with Elastic Cartilage?
Relapsing polychondritis, auricular hematoma
What is a key feature of Elastic Cartilage?
Retains flexibility; hematoma can cause 'cauliflower ear'
What are the histological characteristics of Fibrocartilage?
Collagen bundles, chondrocytes in rows
Where is Fibrocartilage located?
Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis
What conditions are associated with Fibrocartilage?
Herniated discs, ankylosing spondylitis
What is a key function of Fibrocartilage?
Withstands compression and tensile forces; common in axial skeleton disorders
What are the histological characteristics of Skeletal Muscle?
Striated, multinucleated
Where is Skeletal Muscle located?
Attached to bones
What conditions are associated with Skeletal Muscle?
Muscular dystrophies, rhabdomyolysis, polymyositis
What happens to Skeletal Muscle with resistance training?
Undergoes hypertrophy with resistance training; degenerates in dystrophies
What are the histological characteristics of Cardiac Muscle?
Striated, branched, intercalated discs
Where is Cardiac Muscle located?
Myocardium
What conditions are associated with Cardiac Muscle?
Myocarditis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, myocardial infarction
What is a key feature of Cardiac Muscle?
Intercalated discs ensure efficient electrical conduction; necrosis in infarction
What are the histological characteristics of Smooth Muscle?
Non-striated, spindle-shaped
Where is Smooth Muscle located?
GI tract, blood vessels, bladder
What conditions are associated with Smooth Muscle?
Achalasia, asthma, intestinal pseudo-obstruction
What is a key feature of Smooth Muscle?
Involuntary contraction; affected in autoimmune diseases (e.g., scleroderma)
What are the histological characteristics of Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
Parallel collagen fibers, fibroblasts
Where is Dense Regular Connective Tissue located?
Tendons, ligaments
What conditions are associated with Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
Tendinopathy, ACL injuries, Marfan syndrome
What happens to Dense Regular Connective Tissue in genetic conditions?
Elasticity impaired in genetic conditions
What are the characteristics of Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
Where is Dense Regular Connective Tissue found?
What conditions are associated with Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
What happens to elasticity in genetic connective tissue disorders?
Impaired in Marfan syndrome.
What are the characteristics of Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?
Where is Dense Irregular Connective Tissue found?
What conditions are associated with Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?
What is the function of Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?
Withstands multidirectional forces; overgrowth causes keloids.
What are the characteristics of Reticular Tissue?
Where is Reticular Tissue found?
What conditions are associated with Reticular Tissue?
What is the function of Reticular Tissue?
Provides structure for immune cells; hyperplasia in infections or malignancies.
What are the characteristics of Adipose Tissue?
Where is Adipose Tissue found?
What conditions are associated with Adipose Tissue?
What is a consequence of excess fat in Adipose Tissue?
Leads to insulin resistance and inflammatory cytokine release.
What are the characteristics of Bone?
Where is Bone found?
In the skeletal system.
What conditions are associated with Bone?
What is a characteristic of bone remodeling?
Constantly remodeled; prone to fractures in osteoporosis.
What are the characteristics of Lymphoid Tissue?
Where is Lymphoid Tissue found?
What conditions are associated with Lymphoid Tissue?
What is a function of Lymphoid Tissue?
Critical for immune response; involved in neoplastic and infectious processes.
What is metaplasia commonly seen in?
In stratified squamous (e.g., Barrett’s esophagus) and pseudostratified epithelium (e.g., smoking-induced metaplasia).
What happens to hyaline cartilage in osteoarthritis?
It degenerates.
What is a hallmark of lymphoma in lymphoid tissues?
Germinal center expansion.
What are the histological characteristics of Ciliated Epithelium?
Where is Ciliated Epithelium found?
What condition is associated with dysfunction of Ciliated Epithelium?
Kartagener syndrome; leads to impaired mucociliary clearance.
What are Hemosiderin-Laden Macrophages?
Macrophages containing iron deposits.
Where are Hemosiderin-Laden Macrophages found?
What condition is indicated by Hemosiderin-Laden Macrophages?
Chronic hemorrhage or iron overload.
What are the characteristics of Goblet Cells?
Where are Goblet Cells found?
What conditions are associated with Goblet Cells?
What is the role of Neuroendocrine Cells?
Secrete hormones; associated with paraneoplastic syndromes.
What are the characteristics of Neuroendocrine Cells?
Where are Neuroendocrine Cells found?
What conditions are associated with Neuroendocrine Cells?
What are Alveolar Macrophages?
Dust-filled macrophages in alveoli.
Where are Alveolar Macrophages found?
In the lungs.
What conditions are associated with Alveolar Macrophages?
What is the function of Alveolar Macrophages?
Engulf pathogens and particulate matter; critical for innate immunity.
What are the characteristics of Eosinophils?
Where are Eosinophils found?
In blood and tissues during inflammation.
What conditions are associated with Eosinophils?
What do the granules of Eosinophils contain?
Major basic protein; damage seen in hypersensitivity.
What is the histological characteristic of Columnar Epithelium with Goblet Cells?
Tall cells with goblet cells in metaplasia.
What condition is associated with Columnar Epithelium with Goblet Cells?
Barrett’s esophagus; progression to adenocarcinoma.
What are the characteristics of Spindle Cells?
Where are Spindle Cells found?
In connective tissue.
What conditions are associated with Spindle Cells?
What type of cells are elongated and form interlacing bundles?
Connective tissue
What tumors are associated with leiomyosarcoma?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
What are multinucleated giant cells formed from?
Fusion of macrophages
What diseases are associated with granulomas?
What are psammoma bodies?
Round, calcified deposits
Where are psammoma bodies commonly found?
What cancers are associated with psammoma bodies?
What role do neuroendocrine cells play?
Chromogranin-positive; involved in paraneoplastic syndromes
What do eosinophils respond to?
Allergic and parasitic responses
What is highlighted in Barrett’s esophagus?
Columnar epithelium with goblet cells
What are Charcot-Leyden crystals?
Eosinophilic, hexagonal, bipyramidal crystals
Where are Charcot-Leyden crystals found?
Bronchial secretions
What conditions are associated with Charcot-Leyden crystals?
What are Mallory-Denk bodies?
Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
Where are Mallory-Denk bodies found?
Hepatocytes (liver)
What conditions are associated with Mallory-Denk bodies?
What are Lewy bodies?
Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
Where are Lewy bodies found?
Neurons (substantia nigra, cortex)
What conditions are associated with Lewy bodies?
What are Schaumann and asteroid bodies?
Granular or star-shaped inclusions in granulomas
What conditions are associated with Schaumann and asteroid bodies?
Sarcoidosis
What do Homer-Wright rosettes indicate?
Tumor cells around a central area of neuropil
What tumors are associated with Homer-Wright rosettes?
What are signet ring cells?
Mucin-filled cells with peripheral nuclei
What cancers are associated with signet ring cells?
What do Curschman spirals represent?
Whorled mucus plugs formed from shed epithelium
Where are Curschman spirals found?
Bronchi (asthma)
What conditions are associated with Curschman spirals?
What are asbestos bodies?
Golden-brown fusiform rods resembling dumbbells
Where are asbestos bodies found?
Lungs (exposure to asbestos)
What conditions are associated with asbestos bodies?
What are asbestos bodies?
What is honeycomb lung characterized by?
What are lumpy-bumpy deposits?
What does tram-track appearance indicate?
What are spikes on BM indicative of?
What are koilocytes?
What are psammoma bodies?
What are Howell-Jolly bodies?
What are Auer rods?
What are Reed-Sternberg cells?
What are Call-Exner bodies?
What are Schiller-Duval bodies?
What are foamy macrophages?
What are ground-glass hepatocytes?
What are Councilman bodies?
What are Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses?
What is hyperkeratosis?
What is chronic cholecystitis formed due to?
What is hyperkeratosis?
What is acanthosis?
What condition is acanthosis associated with?
What is cerebral amyloid angiopathy?
What is the risk associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy?
What are ring sideroblasts?
What conditions are ring sideroblasts associated with?
What are flame cells?
What condition are flame cells associated with?
What are Cowdry Type A inclusions?
Which viruses are associated with Cowdry Type A inclusions?
What are Birbeck granules?
What condition are Birbeck granules diagnostic for?
What are ground-glass hepatocytes and Councilman bodies indicators of?
What are ring sideroblasts essential for recognizing?
What do acanthosis and hyperkeratosis indicate?
What do Cowdry Type A inclusions and Birbeck granules expand coverage of?
What color do Gram-positive bacteria stain?
What are examples of Gram-positive cocci?
What color do Gram-negative bacteria stain?
What are examples of Gram-negative rods?
What do Gram-variable bacteria show?
What color do Gram-non-responsive bacteria show?
What are examples of Gram-positive cocci in chains?
What are examples of Gram-negative cocci?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for MRSA?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for MSSA?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for Streptococcus pneumoniae?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for Clostridium difficile?
What are the cocci examples and associated diseases?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for cocci?
Ceftriaxone for both.
What are the enteric rods examples and associated diseases?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for enteric rods?
Fluoroquinolones, TMP-SMX.
What are the non-enteric rods examples and associated diseases?
What is the antibiotic susceptibility for non-enteric rods?
Piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime.
What are the acid-fast pathogens examples and associated diseases?
What are the staining techniques for acid-fast pathogens?
What are the spirochetes examples and associated diseases?
What are the staining techniques for spirochetes?
What are the intracellular pathogens examples and associated diseases?
What is the staining technique for intracellular pathogens?
Giemsa stain for both.
What is the purpose of Gram Staining?
Differentiates gram-positive vs. gram-negative.
What does Acid-Fast Staining detect?
Lipid-rich mycolic acid in cell walls.
What does Giemsa Stain target?
Intracellular organisms (e.g., Rickettsia, Plasmodium).
What is Darkfield Microscopy used for?
Direct visualization for non-gram-stainable bacteria (e.g., Treponema pallidum).
What does India Ink highlight?
Highlights capsule; used in CSF for meningitis (e.g., Cryptococcus neoformans).
What is the role of Pathogen-Specific Therapies?
Empiric therapy tailored based on gram stain results.
What are atypical pathogens?
Non-responsive organisms requiring clinical suspicion and specialized diagnostics.
What does India Ink stain for fungi?
What does Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS) stain for?
What does GMS, KOH stain for fungi?
What does GMS, KOH stain for non-septate fungi?
What does GMS, KOH, Gram Stain stain for yeast?
What does Giemsa Stain target in parasitic pathogens?
What does Giemsa Stain diagnose in Leishmania?
What techniques are used for diagnosing helminths?
Wet Mount, Concentration Techniques.
What does Trichrome, Wet Mount stain for?
What is the diagnostic method for Strongyloides stercoralis?
Agar plate culture
What is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites?
Tear-drop shaped with 'falling leaf' motility
What is the diagnostic feature of Entamoeba histolytica?
Cysts with up to four nuclei; trophozoites with ingested RBCs
What does Silver Stain diagnose?
Fungal pathogens and Legionella
What does Calcofluor White stain highlight?
Chitin in fungal cell walls
What is the use of Auramine-Rhodamine Stain?
For Mycobacteria; higher sensitivity than Ziehl-Neelsen
What is the Wright Stain used for?
Diagnostic for blood parasites and eosinophils
What does the Modified Acid-Fast Stain identify?
Cryptosporidium and Cyclospora oocysts
What is critical in diagnosing Mucormycosis?
Distinguishing non-septate hyphae from septate Aspergillus
What is the first-line test for Cryptococcus meningitis?
India ink test
What stain is the gold standard for Malaria diagnosis?
Giemsa stain
What is the mechanism of action of TSST-1 from Staphylococcus aureus?
Superantigen; activates T cells, causing cytokine storm
What does Exfoliative Toxin do?
Cleaves desmoglein-1 in the epidermis
What is the effect of Clostridium botulinum toxin?
Blocks ACh release at neuromuscular junction
What does Diphtheria Toxin inhibit?
Inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylating EF-2
What is the result of Cholera Toxin activation?
Increased cAMP → Cl⁻ secretion, causing watery diarrhea
What does Heat-Stable Toxin (ST) do?
Activates guanylate cyclase → increased cGMP
What does Shiga Toxin inhibit?
Inhibits 60S ribosome, halting protein synthesis
What bacteria produces Shiga Toxin?
Shigella dysenteriae
What is the mechanism of action of Shiga Toxin?
Inhibits 60S ribosome, halting protein synthesis
What cells are targeted by Shiga Toxin?
Endothelial cells
What diseases are associated with Shiga Toxin?
Dysentery, hemolytic uremic syndrome
What bacteria produces Anthrax Toxin?
Bacillus anthracis
What is the mechanism of action of Anthrax Toxin?
Edema factor (increases cAMP), lethal factor (MAPK inhibition)
What cells are targeted by Anthrax Toxin?
Macrophages, immune cells
What diseases are associated with Anthrax Toxin?
Cutaneous anthrax, pulmonary anthrax
What bacteria produces Exotoxin A?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What is the mechanism of action of Exotoxin A?
ADP-ribosylates EF-2, inhibiting protein synthesis
What cells are targeted by Exotoxin A?
Elongation factor-2
What diseases are associated with Exotoxin A?
Burn infections, ecthyma gangrenosum
What bacteria produces Pertussis Toxin?
Bordetella pertussis
What is the mechanism of action of Pertussis Toxin?
ADP-ribosylates Gi → increased cAMP
What cells are targeted by Pertussis Toxin?
Respiratory epithelium
What disease is associated with Pertussis Toxin?
Whooping cough
What bacteria produces Alpha Toxin?
Clostridium perfringens
What is the mechanism of action of Alpha Toxin?
Phospholipase degrades cell membranes
What cells are targeted by Alpha Toxin?
Red blood cells, platelets
What diseases are associated with Alpha Toxin?
Gas gangrene, myonecrosis
What bacteria produces Vacuolating Cytotoxin (VacA)?
Helicobacter pylori
What is the mechanism of action of VacA?
Induces apoptosis, disrupts tight junctions
What cells are targeted by VacA?
Gastric epithelium
What diseases are associated with VacA?
Gastric ulcers, gastric cancer
What is a key feature of ADP-Ribosylation toxins?
Disrupt protein synthesis or signaling pathways
What are examples of superantigens?
TSST-1 (Staphylococcus aureus), erythrogenic toxins (S. pyogenes)
What is the mechanism of action of Shiga toxin?
Inhibits ribosomes, while botulinum toxin blocks neurotransmitter release
What bacteria produces Heat-Stable and Heat-Labile Enterotoxins?
Bacillus cereus
What is the mechanism of action of Heat-Stable Enterotoxin?
Activates guanylate cyclase
What is the mechanism of action of Heat-Labile Enterotoxin?
Activates adenylate cyclase
What diseases are associated with Bacillus cereus toxins?
Food poisoning
What bacteria produces Endotoxin?
Francisella tularensis
What is the mechanism of action of Endotoxin?
Activates macrophages → TNF, IL-1, IL-6 release
What disease is associated with Francisella tularensis?
Tularemia
What bacteria produces Typhoid Toxin?
Salmonella typhi
What is the mechanism of action of Typhoid Toxin?
Inhibits eukaryotic cell signaling
What disease is associated with Typhoid Toxin?
Typhoid fever
What bacteria produces Yersinia Outer Proteins (Yops)?
Yersinia pestis
What is the mechanism of action of Yersinia Outer Proteins?
Inhibit phagocytosis, disrupt actin cytoskeleton
What diseases are associated with Yersinia pestis?
Bubonic plague, pneumonic plague
What bacteria produces Cytolethal Distending Toxin?
Campylobacter jejuni
What is the mechanism of action of Cytolethal Distending Toxin?
Causes DNA damage
What diseases are associated with Campylobacter jejuni?
Diarrhea, Guillain-Barré syndrome
What bacteria produces LPS?
Coxiella burnetii
What is the mechanism of action of LPS?
Chronic inflammation via TLR4 activation
What disease is associated with Coxiella burnetii?
Q fever
What bacteria produces Trimeric Autotransporter Adhesin?
Bartonella henselae
What is the function of Trimeric Autotransporter Adhesin?
Induces angiogenesis
What diseases are associated with Bartonella henselae?
Cat-scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis
What is a diagnostic note for Francisella and Yersinia?
Require high clinical suspicion in endemic or exposure scenarios.
What is angiomatosis?
Visible as vascular lesions in immunocompromised hosts.
What is required for diagnosing Francisella and Yersinia?
High clinical suspicion in endemic or exposure settings.
How are Francisella and Yersinia diagnosed?
With serology or culture on specialized media.
What do Bartonella toxins appear as histologically?
Angioproliferative lesions in bacillary angiomatosis.
How are Bartonella toxins diagnosed?
With biopsy or PCR.
What is a key post-infectious sequela of Campylobacter jejuni?
Guillain-Barré syndrome due to molecular mimicry.
What are zoonotic pathogens?
Rare but high-yield for USMLE, like Yersinia pestis and Coxiella burnetii.
What do enterotoxins add to diarrhea mechanisms?
Complexity, with examples like Bacillus cereus and Salmonella typhi.
What does Salmonella typhi toxin do?
Causes DNA damage and alters host cell signaling.
What is a disease associated with Salmonella typhi?
Typhoid fever.
What does Clostridioides difficile Toxin A do?
Activates inflammatory response and increases permeability.
What disease is associated with Clostridioides difficile Toxin A?
Pseudomembranous colitis.
What does Clostridioides difficile Toxin B do?
Depolymerizes actin filaments, causing cell death.
What is more cytotoxic, Toxin A or Toxin B?
Toxin B is more cytotoxic than Toxin A.
What does the Emetic Toxin of Bacillus cereus stimulate?
Stimulates vagus nerve via enterotoxin.
What type of food poisoning is associated with Bacillus cereus?
Food poisoning with rapid onset of vomiting.
What does the Diarrheal Toxin of Bacillus cereus increase?
Increases cAMP.
What does Francisella tularensis inhibit?
Phagolysosomal fusion in macrophages.
What disease is associated with Francisella tularensis?
Tularemia.
What does Mycobacterium tuberculosis activate?
Activates macrophages and induces TNF-α.
What is critical for the virulence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Granuloma formation.
What do Yersinia pestis Yop proteins inhibit?
Inhibit phagocytosis and disrupt actin cytoskeleton.
What disease is associated with Yersinia pestis?
Plague.
What does Coxiella burnetii inject into host cells?
Proteins to prevent lysosomal fusion.
What is the gold standard for diagnosing Coxiella burnetii?
Serology.
What is the treatment for Clostridioides difficile?
Vancomycin (oral) or fidaxomicin; avoid broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What is the treatment for Yersinia pestis?
Streptomycin or doxycycline.
What does the RIPE therapy for Mycobacterium tuberculosis include?
Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol.
What are the Gram-positive cocci examples?
What is the morphology of Gram-positive cocci?
Cocci in clusters (staph), chains (strep)
What is the classification of Gram-positive cocci?
Gram-positive
What are the distinguishing factors of Staphylococcus?
Catalase (+)
What are the distinguishing factors of Streptococcus?
Catalase (-)
What are the Gram-negative cocci examples?
What is the morphology of Gram-negative cocci?
Diplococci
What is the classification of Gram-negative cocci?
Gram-negative
What are the distinguishing factors of Gram-negative cocci?
Oxidase-positive; grows on Thayer-Martin media.
What are the Gram-positive rods examples?
What is the morphology of Gram-positive rods?
Rods
What is the classification of Gram-positive rods?
Gram-positive
What are the distinguishing factors of Clostridium?
Anaerobic
What are the distinguishing factors of Bacillus?
Spore-forming
What are the Gram-negative rods examples?
What is the morphology of Gram-negative rods?
Rods
What is the classification of Gram-negative rods?
Gram-negative
What are the distinguishing factors of E. coli?
Lactose-fermenting
What are the distinguishing factors of Pseudomonas?
Non-lactose fermenting
What are the acid-fast examples?
What is the morphology of acid-fast bacteria?
Bacilli
What is the classification of acid-fast bacteria?
Acid-fast (Ziehl-Neelsen)
What is a distinguishing factor of acid-fast bacteria?
Mycolic acid in cell wall.
What are the spirochetes examples?
What is the morphology of spirochetes?
Helical
What is the classification of spirochetes?
Gram-nonresponsive
How are spirochetes diagnosed?
Darkfield microscopy or serology.
What are the yeasts examples?
What is the morphology of yeasts?
Oval-shaped unicellular organisms
What is the classification of yeasts?
Opportunistic
What are the distinguishing factors of Candida?
Forms pseudohyphae
What are the distinguishing factors of Cryptococcus?
Has a thick capsule.
What are the molds examples?
What is the morphology of molds?
Multicellular, septate (Aspergillus), non-septate (Mucor)
What is the classification of molds?
Opportunistic
What are the distinguishing factors of Aspergillus?
Acute angle branching
What are the distinguishing factors of Mucor?
Right angle branching.
What are the dimorphic fungi examples?
What is the morphology of dimorphic fungi?
Yeast at body temp, mold at 25°C
What is the classification of dimorphic fungi?
Systemic
What are the distinguishing factors of dimorphic fungi?
Endemic to specific regions; broad-based budding (Blastomyces).
What are the DNA viruses examples?
What is the genome of DNA viruses?
Double-stranded DNA
What is the classification of DNA viruses?
Enveloped
What are the distinguishing factors of DNA viruses?
Latent infections common (e.g., HSV).
What are the RNA viruses examples?
What is the genome of RNA viruses?
Single-stranded RNA (+/- sense)
What is the classification of RNA viruses?
Enveloped/Non-enveloped
What are the distinguishing factors of RNA viruses?
Segmented genome (Influenza); reverse transcriptase (HIV).
What are the retroviruses examples?
What is the genome of retroviruses?
RNA genome, DNA intermediate
What is the classification of retroviruses?
Enveloped
What are the distinguishing factors of retroviruses?
Reverse transcription; integrates into host genome.
What are the protozoa examples?
What is the morphology of protozoa?
Trophozoites, cysts
What is the classification of protozoa?
Intracellular/Extracellular
What are the distinguishing factors of Plasmodium?
Ring forms
What are the distinguishing factors of Entamoeba?
RBC ingestion
What are the helminths examples?
What is the morphology of helminths?
Worms
What is the classification of helminths?
Multicellular
What are the distinguishing factors of Schistosoma?
Eggs: lateral or terminal spines.
What are the diagnostic clues for infectious diseases?
What are the morphological key points for infectious diseases?
What is the morphology of Brucella spp.?
Small gram-negative coccobacilli
What is the classification of Brucella spp.?
Facultative intracellular
What is the distinguishing feature of Brucella spp.?
Acquired from unpasteurized dairy or contact with infected animals.
What is the morphology of Brucella spp.?
Small gram-negative coccobacilli
What type of pathogen is Brucella spp.?
Facultative intracellular
How is Brucella spp. acquired?
From unpasteurized dairy or animal contact
What disease is caused by Brucella spp.?
Brucellosis: undulating fever, night sweats
What is the morphology of Francisella tularensis?
Small gram-negative coccobacilli
What type of pathogen is Francisella tularensis?
Intracellular pathogen
How is Francisella tularensis transmitted?
Via ticks, rabbits
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
Tularemia: ulceroglandular lesions, fever
What is the morphology of Coxiella burnetii?
Gram-negative, pleomorphic
What type of pathogen is Coxiella burnetii?
Obligate intracellular
How is Coxiella burnetii transmitted?
Spores, inhalation from livestock
What disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii?
Q fever: pneumonia, hepatitis, endocarditis
What is the morphology of Rickettsia rickettsii?
Gram-negative pleomorphic
What type of pathogen is Rickettsia rickettsii?
Obligate intracellular
How is Rickettsia rickettsii transmitted?
Tick-borne, rash starts on wrists/ankles
What disease is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii?
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
What is the morphology of Anaplasma spp. and Ehrlichia spp.?
Intracellular with morulae
What type of pathogen are Anaplasma spp. and Ehrlichia spp.?
Obligate intracellular
What is the distinguishing feature of Anaplasma spp. and Ehrlichia spp.?
Morulae in monocytes (Ehrlichia) or neutrophils (Anaplasma)
What disease is caused by Anaplasma spp. and Ehrlichia spp.?
Tick-borne fever syndromes
What is the morphology of Burkholderia pseudomallei?
Gram-negative rods
What type of pathogen is Burkholderia pseudomallei?
Aerobic
How is Burkholderia pseudomallei acquired?
Soil/water exposure in endemic regions
What disease is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei?
Melioidosis: abscesses, pneumonia, sepsis
What is the morphology of Coccidioides immitis/posadasii?
Spherules in tissues
What type of pathogen is Coccidioides immitis/posadasii?
Dimorphic
Where is Coccidioides immitis/posadasii endemic?
Southwestern US
What disease is caused by Coccidioides immitis/posadasii?
Coccidioidomycosis: Valley fever
What is the morphology of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Yeast with 'pilot wheel' morphology
What type of pathogen is Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Dimorphic
Where is Paracoccidioides brasiliensis found?
Central/South America; budding yeast
What disease is caused by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Paracoccidioidomycosis: chronic pulmonary lesions
What is the morphology of Talaromyces marneffei?
Intracellular yeast
What type of pathogen is Talaromyces marneffei?
Dimorphic
Where is Talaromyces marneffei endemic?
Southeast Asia; HIV-associated
What disease is caused by Talaromyces marneffei?
Disseminated talaromycosis
What is the morphology of Trypanosoma cruzi?
Trypomastigotes in blood
What type of pathogen is Trypanosoma cruzi?
Protozoa
What disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas disease: dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon
How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted?
By Reduviid bug feces
What is the morphology of Babesia microti?
Maltese cross in RBCs
What type of pathogen is Babesia microti?
Protozoa
How is Babesia microti transmitted?
Ixodes tick-borne
What disease is caused by Babesia microti?
Babesiosis: hemolytic anemia, fever
What is the morphology of Schistosoma spp.?
Eggs with lateral/terminal spines
What type of pathogen is Schistosoma spp.?
Trematodes
How is Schistosoma spp. acquired?
Waterborne; chronic infection in veins
What disease is caused by Schistosoma spp.?
Schistosomiasis: hematuria (S. haematobium)
What are some additional intracellular bacteria?
Brucella, Francisella, Coxiella, Rickettsia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia
Why include Paracoccidioides and Talaromyces?
Geographically specific fungi align with global epidemiology focus
What are examples of Gram-positive rods?
Actinomyces, Nocardia
What is the distinguishing feature of Actinomyces?
Anaerobic, sulfur granules
What is the distinguishing feature of Nocardia?
Aerobic, partially acid-fast
What are examples of Gram-negative rods?
Francisella tularensis, Burkholderia pseudomallei
What is a distinguishing factor of Francisella?
Requires cysteine
What is a distinguishing factor of Burkholderia?
Motile, oxidase-positive
What is the morphology of Leptospira?
Helical
What type of virus is Parvovirus B19?
Single-stranded DNA, non-enveloped
What disease is associated with Parvovirus B19?
Aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients
What is the genome type of Coxsackievirus A?
Single-stranded RNA (+ sense), non-enveloped
What disease does Coxsackievirus A cause?
Hand-foot-mouth disease
What type of virus is associated with aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients?
DNA virus - Non-enveloped
What is the morphology of Coxsackievirus A?
Single-stranded RNA (+ sense) - Non-enveloped
What diseases does Coxsackievirus A cause?
What is the morphology of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Yeast at body temp, mold at 25°C
What is a distinguishing factor of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Captains-wheel appearance; endemic to South America.
What is the vector for Onchocerca volvulus?
Blackfly
What disease does Onchocerca volvulus cause?
River blindness
What is unique about Balantidium coli?
Only ciliated protozoan causing human disease.
What media does Francisella tularensis require for growth?
Cysteine-enriched media
What media does Legionella pneumophila require?
Buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE) agar
What is a distinguishing factor of Brucella spp.?
Causes brucellosis; transmitted via unpasteurized dairy.
What disease does Francisella tularensis cause?
Tularemia
What is the morphology of Leptospira interrogans?
Spirochete
What disease is caused by Coxiella burnetii?
Q fever
What is the morphology of Coccidioides immitis?
Spherule (not yeast) in tissues
What disease does Coccidioides immitis cause?
Coccidioidomycosis; endemic to southwestern U.S.
What virus causes hemorrhagic fever?
Yellow Fever Virus
What is the vector for Chikungunya Virus?
Aedes mosquito
What disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas disease
What is the distinguishing feature of Babesia microti?
Maltese cross appearance
What is a diagnostic requirement for Coxiella burnetii?
Diagnosed via serology or PCR; culture is hazardous.
What is the importance of Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP)?
Assessment of heart function and fluid status.
What does Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP) reflect?
Right atrial pressure, indirectly measuring central venous pressure (CVP).
What is the normal range for JVP?
≤3 cm above the sternal angle at a 45° incline.
Which vein is preferred for measuring JVP?
Internal jugular vein; external jugular is less reliable.
What are the components of the JVP waveform?
Includes 'a', 'c', 'x', 'v', and 'y' waves.
What does the a wave in JVP indicate?
Atrial contraction; absent in atrial fibrillation.
What does the c wave in JVP represent?
Bulging of tricuspid valve during RV systole; exaggerated in tricuspid regurgitation.
What does the x descent in JVP signify?
Atrial relaxation; reduced in tricuspid regurgitation, absent in tamponade.
What does the v wave indicate in JVP?
Passive filling of RA during RV systole; prominent in tricuspid regurgitation.
What does the y descent in JVP represent?
Rapid emptying of RA into RV during diastole; exaggerated in constrictive pericarditis.
What is a clinical finding of right-sided heart failure related to JVP?
Elevated JVP, positive hepatojugular reflux.
What is a JVP finding in constrictive pericarditis?
Rapid y descent; impaired ventricular filling.
What does elevated JVP with absent y descent indicate?
Cardiac tamponade; limits heart filling.
What does loss of the a wave in JVP signify?
No coordinated atrial contraction; seen in atrial fibrillation.
What does a prominent v wave in JVP indicate?
Backflow of blood into the RA during systole; seen in tricuspid regurgitation.
What is the JVP finding in superior vena cava syndrome?
Elevated JVP without pulsations; obstruction of venous drainage.
How should a patient be positioned to measure JVP?
Reclined at a 30–45° angle with relaxed neck muscles.
What is the measurement technique for JVP?
Measure from sternal angle to top of venous pulsation; add 5 cm for CVP.
What differentiates venous pulsation from arterial pulsation?
Venous is biphasic and non-palpable; arterial is monophasic and palpable.
What does JVP assess?
Volume status and right-sided heart function.
What is systolic heart failure?
Impaired contraction of the left ventricle; reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF).
What are common causes of systolic heart failure?
Ischemic heart disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension.
What is diastolic heart failure?
Impaired relaxation of the left ventricle; preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF).
What are common causes of diastolic heart failure?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension, aortic stenosis.
What is a key feature of left-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary congestion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
What can left-sided heart failure lead to?
Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale).
What are symptoms of right-sided heart failure?
Peripheral edema, ascites, hepatomegaly, JVD.
What can lead to right-sided heart failure?
Vular disease can lead to right-sided failure (cor pulmonale).
What is right-sided heart failure characterized by?
Right ventricle fails to pump effectively, causing: - Peripheral edema - Ascites - Hepatomegaly - JVD
What are the consequences of right-sided heart failure?
Can lead to: - Pulmonary hypertension - Left-sided heart failure
What is high-output heart failure?
Inability to meet oxygen demand despite high cardiac output.
What are the symptoms of high-output heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Warm extremities - Bounding pulses - Low systemic vascular resistance
What conditions can cause high-output heart failure?
Conditions include: - Severe anemia - Hyperthyroidism - AV fistulas
What is low-output heart failure?
Characterized by reduced cardiac output.
What are the symptoms of low-output heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Cold extremities - Fatigue - Hypotension
What conditions can cause low-output heart failure?
Conditions include: - Ischemic heart disease - Cardiomyopathies
What is acute heart failure?
Rapid onset or worsening of symptoms.
What are the symptoms of acute heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Pulmonary edema - Hypotension
What can cause acute heart failure?
Causes include: - Acute MI - Hypertensive crisis - Arrhythmias
What is chronic heart failure?
Long-standing heart failure with a compensated state.
What are the symptoms of chronic heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Gradual worsening of fatigue - Dyspnea
What is the role of neurohormonal activation in heart failure?
It includes: - RAAS promotes fluid retention - Sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate
What are the compensatory mechanisms in heart failure?
Initially adaptive (increased preload), but eventually maladaptive (ventricular remodeling).
What distinguishes systolic heart failure from diastolic heart failure?
HFrEF has reduced EF; HFpEF preserves EF but with impaired filling.
What are the core treatments for systolic heart failure (HFrEF)?
Core treatments include: - ACE inhibitors/ARBs - Beta-blockers - Aldosterone antagonists
What do diuretics do in heart failure treatment?
Relieve pulmonary congestion and volume overload; provide symptomatic relief only.
What is the mechanism of action for digoxin in heart failure?
Increases contractility and reduces heart rate; reserved for persistent symptoms.
What is the treatment focus for diastolic heart failure (HFpEF)?
Control hypertension and manage atrial fibrillation.
What is a key treatment for acute decompensated heart failure?
IV diuretics (e.g., furosemide) and vasodilators (e.g., nitroglycerin).
What are the treatments for right-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary vasodilators (e.g., sildenafil, bosentan) reduce pulmonary vascular resistance.
What are vasodilators used for in heart failure?
What is the treatment for High-Output Heart Failure?
What are the symptoms of Left-Sided Heart Failure?
What are the symptoms of Right-Sided Heart Failure?
What are the physical exam findings for heart failure?
What does echocardiography show in HFrEF?
What does echocardiography show in HFpEF?
What are the chest X-ray findings in heart failure?
What lab markers are used to diagnose heart failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the symptoms of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What are the exam findings for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What diagnostic tests are used for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the prognosis for patients with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What are the differences between HFrEF and HFpEF?
What are the initial steps in heart failure management?
What lifestyle modifications are recommended for heart failure?
What is the stepwise pharmacologic therapy for HFrEF?
What is the stepwise pharmacologic therapy for HFpEF?
What is the management for acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the management for acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the first-line treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What advanced therapies are available for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What are the causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the standard treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What advanced therapies are available for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?
How is Restrictive Cardiomyopathy diagnosed?
What is the treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What are the clinical presentations of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy?
How is Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy diagnosed?
What is the treatment for Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the clinical presentations of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the risk factors for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
How do you differentiate between RCM and Constrictive Pericarditis?
What is the therapy focus for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the therapy focus for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the core therapy for Systolic HF (HFrEF)?
What is the mechanism of action for Diuretics in heart failure?
What is the role of Digoxin in heart failure?
What is the treatment for Diastolic HF (HFpEF)?
What is the treatment for Diastolic Heart Failure (HFpEF)?
What is the role of Spironolactone in HFpEF?
What are the treatments for Acute Heart Failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the clinical features of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What is the treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What are the clinical features of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What is the treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What are the clinical features of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What is the treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What are the clinical features of Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What is the treatment for Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What is the pathophysiology of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the clinical features of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the causes of Hypovolemic Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypovolemic Shock?
What are the clinical features of Hypovolemic Shock?
What is the treatment for Hypovolemic Shock?
What are the causes of Cardiogenic Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Cardiogenic Shock?
What are the clinical features of Cardiogenic Shock?
What is the treatment for Cardiogenic Shock?
What are the causes of Distributive Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Distributive Shock?
What are the clinical features of Distributive Shock?
What is the treatment for Distributive Shock?
What are the causes of Obstructive Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Obstructive Shock?
What are the clinical features of Obstructive Shock?
What is the treatment for Obstructive Shock?
What are the causes of Neurogenic Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Neurogenic Shock?
What are the clinical features of Neurogenic Shock?
What is the treatment for Neurogenic Shock?
What is a key insight regarding Heart Failure?
What is a key insight regarding Types of Shock?
What is an example of a benign serous tumor?
What is an example of a malignant serous tumor?
What are the key features of serous tumors?
What associated condition increases the risk of serous tumor malignancy?
What is an example of a benign mucinous tumor?
What is a serous cystadenoma?
A benign ovarian tumor often presenting bilaterally.
What is a serous cystadenocarcinoma?
A malignant ovarian tumor that is often cystic and bilateral.
Which mutations increase the risk of serous cystadenocarcinoma?
BRCA1/2 mutations.
What characterizes mucinous cystadenoma?
A benign, multiloculated, large, mucus-producing tumor.
What is a mucinous cystadenocarcinoma?
A malignant tumor that is large, multiloculated, and mucus-producing.
What condition is associated with malignant mucinous tumors?
Pseudomyxoma peritonei.
What is an endometrioid carcinoma?
A tumor resembling endometrial tissue, often bilateral.
What syndromes are associated with endometrioid tumors?
Endometriosis and Lynch syndrome.
What is a clear cell carcinoma?
An aggressive tumor with clear cytoplasm, associated with endometriosis.
What is a Brenner tumor?
A benign tumor with transitional epithelium and 'coffee bean nuclei'.
What is a mature cystic teratoma?
A benign germ cell tumor also known as a dermoid cyst.
What is an immature teratoma?
A malignant germ cell tumor containing elements from all germ layers.
What is a dysgerminoma?
A malignant germ cell tumor with large cells and a 'fried egg' appearance.
What are Schiller-Duval bodies associated with?
Yolk sac tumors.
What is a choriocarcinoma?
A malignant tumor characterized by elevated hCG, often metastatic.
What is a granulosa cell tumor?
A tumor that produces estrogen, characterized by Call-Exner bodies.
What is a Sertoli-Leydig tumor?
An androgen-producing tumor causing masculinizing features.
What is a fibroma?
A benign tumor with spindle-shaped cells and rare malignant potential.
What is a Krukenberg tumor?
A metastatic tumor with signet ring cells, often from gastric cancer.
What is the first-line imaging for ovarian masses?
Ultrasound.
What does an elevated CA-125 indicate?
Elevated in epithelial ovarian cancers; limited specificity in premenopausal women.
What is the treatment for epithelial tumors?
Surgical resection (cytoreduction) + chemotherapy.
What is the prognosis for Stage I ovarian cancer?
Excellent (90% 5-year survival for IA).
What is a key feature of Stage III ovarian cancer?
Peritoneal metastases and retroperitoneal nodes.
What is the treatment for germ cell tumors?
Surgery + chemotherapy (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin).
What is the critical role of debunking surgery?
It is essential in managing advanced disease, specifically in ovarian cancer.
What does Stage IV indicate in ovarian cancer?
Distant metastases (e.g., liver, pleura); advanced disease with a palliative focus in some cases.
What is the clinical relevance of CA-125?
Useful for monitoring epithelial ovarian cancers; not diagnostic in early stages.
What does AFP signify in cancer diagnosis?
Diagnostic marker for yolk sac tumors; also elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma.
High levels of hCG are associated with which tumors?
Choriocarcinoma and gestational tumors.
What is the role of Inhibin in ovarian cancer?
Monitored for recurrence in granulosa cell tumors.
What do BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations confer susceptibility to?
High-grade serous ovarian carcinoma; PARP inhibitors improve survival.
What is the most common mutation in high-grade serous carcinoma?
p53 mutation.
What do BRAF/CTNNB1 mutations guide?
Targeted therapy for low-grade serous and endometrioid carcinomas.
What does the Expanded Tumor Marker Algorithm suggest for pre-menopausal women?
Likely functional cysts; markers include β-hCG, LDH, AFP, hCG.
What does an elevated CA-125 suggest in post-menopausal women?
Malignancy; HE4 increases specificity for epithelial cancers.
What is the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI)?
Combines ultrasound findings, menopausal status, and CA-125 levels.
What are Krukenberg tumors?
Metastatic tumors from gastric or colon cancer; signet ring cells on histology.
What do granulosa cell tumors secrete?
Estrogen; monitored for endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma.
Which tumors are known to be highly chemosensitive?
Germ cell tumors and dysgerminomas.
What is the mechanism of action for PARP inhibitors?
Inhibits DNA repair, leading to cell death in BRCA-deficient cells.
What does Bevacizumab target?
VEGF in advanced/recurrent ovarian cancer.
What is the role of Pembrolizumab?
Enhances T cell-mediated immune response in mismatch repair-deficient tumors.
What do Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors inhibit?
VEGFR, PDGFR, FGFR signaling in angiogenesis-related pathways.
What is the goal of cytoreductive surgery?
Remove all visible disease to <1 cm residual in advanced epithelial ovarian cancer.
What does fertility-sparing surgery involve?
Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for early-stage germ cell or sex cord tumors.
What is included in staging surgery?
Hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, lymph node sampling for early-stage epithelial ovarian cancer.
What is the indication for secondary debulking?
Performed if disease-free interval is >6 months in recurrent ovarian cancer.
What cancers are associated with Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Cancer (HBOC) syndrome?
Breast, ovarian, pancreatic, prostate cancers.
What is the screening recommendation for Lynch Syndrome?
Annual transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy.
What is the significance of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
Associated with GI polyps, breast, and ovarian cancers; requires routine imaging.
What cancers are associated with Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?
Breast, sarcoma, brain, adrenocortical carcinoma.
What is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome associated with?
What are the components of comprehensive cancer screening protocols?
What is the purpose of surgical prevention in cancer risk reduction?
What is the role of chemoprevention in cancer risk reduction?
What lifestyle factors help in cancer risk reduction?
What is the significance of targeted therapy in cancer treatment?
Why is staging important in cancer treatment?
What are the critical aspects of familial syndromes in cancer management?
What is the source of IL-1 and its key roles?
What is the role of IL-2 in immunity?
What does IL-3 do in the immune system?
What is the role of IL-4 in the immune response?
What is the effect of IL-5?
What does IL-6 do?
What is the function of IL-7?
What is the role of IL-10 in the immune system?
What does IL-12 promote?
What is the significance of IL-13?
What role does IL-17 play in immunity?
What does IL-18 enhance?
What is the role of IL-21?
What is elevated in macrophage activation syndrome?
IL-21
What do IL-21 follicular helper T cells support?
What does IL-21 enhance?
Antibody production
In what conditions is dysregulation of IL-21 seen?
Autoimmune conditions
What cells does IL-23 expand?
Th17 cell population
What is IL-23 key in?
Chronic inflammation
What biologic targets IL-23?
Ustekinumab
What conditions does Anakinra treat?
What does Mepolizumab treat?
Severe eosinophilic asthma
What condition does Tocilizumab treat?
What conditions does Ustekinumab target?
What conditions do Secukinumab and Ixekizumab treat?
What does Risankizumab target?
Psoriasis
What cytokines drive cellular immunity?
What cytokines promote humoral responses?
What are pro-inflammatory interleukins?
What are anti-inflammatory interleukins?
What is the function of CN I (Olfactory)?
Smell
What condition is associated with CN I?
Anosmia (e.g., head trauma, Parkinson's, COVID-19)
What is the function of CN II (Optic)?
Vision
What condition is associated with CN II?
Optic neuritis (MS), visual field defects
What is the function of CN III (Oculomotor)?
What condition is associated with CN III?
What is the function of CN IV (Trochlear)?
Eye movement (superior oblique muscle)
What condition is associated with CN IV?
Vertical diplopia; head tilt compensates
What is the function of CN V (Trigeminal)?
What condition is associated with CN V?
Trigeminal neuralgia, loss of corneal reflex
What is the function of CN VI (Abducens)?
Eye movement (lateral rectus muscle)
What condition is associated with CN VI?
Horizontal diplopia, eye turned medially
What is the function of CN VII (Facial)?
What condition is associated with CN VII?
Bell's palsy (peripheral) vs. central lesion (spares forehead)
What is the function of CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)?
What condition is associated with CN VIII?
Vertigo, nystagmus, hearing loss (e.g., acoustic neuroma)
What is the function of CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)?
What condition is associated with CN IX?
Loss of gag reflex, dysphagia
What is the function of CN X (Vagus)?
What condition is associated with CN X?
Uvula deviates away from lesion, dysphonia
What is the function of CN XI (Accessory)?
What condition is associated with CN XI?
Shoulder droop (ipsilateral), weakness in head rotation
What is the function of CN XII (Hypoglossal)?
Tongue movement
What condition is associated with CN XII?
Tongue deviates toward lesion, speech/swallowing issues
What findings are associated with CN II lesions?
Visual field defects (e.g., bitemporal hemianopsia)
What findings are associated with CN III lesions?
What is the condition associated with CN II?
What are the findings of CN II lesions?
What conditions are related to CN III?
What are the findings of CN III lesions?
What are the common conditions for CN V?
What are the findings of CN V lesions?
What are the common conditions for CN VII?
What are the findings of CN VII lesions?
What is a common condition associated with CN VIII?
What are the findings of CN VIII lesions?
What are the common conditions for CN IX/X?
What are the findings of CN IX/X lesions?
What is a common condition related to CN XI?
What are the findings of CN XI lesions?
What is a common condition associated with CN XII?
What are the findings of CN XII lesions?
What is the afferent limb of the Corneal Reflex?
What is the efferent limb of the Corneal Reflex?
What is the afferent limb of the Gag Reflex?
What is the efferent limb of the Gag Reflex?
What is the afferent limb of the Pupillary Reflex?
What is the efferent limb of the Pupillary Reflex?
What is the clinical relevance of Olfactory Sensitivity Test?
What imaging is used for persistent anosmia?
What does reduced visual acuity suggest in CN II testing?
What does a visual fields test indicate in CN II testing?
What does fundoscopy examine in CN II testing?
What does the pupillary reflex test for in CN III, IV, VI testing?
What does impaired accommodation indicate in CN III dysfunction?
What does facial sensation testing assess in CN V?
What does the corneal reflex test for in CN V?
What does jaw strength testing indicate in CN V?
What does facial movement testing assess in CN VII?
What does taste testing in CN VII indicate?
What does hyperacusis indicate in CN VII?
What do hearing tests assess in CN VIII?
What is assessed for hyperacusis?
Sensitivity to sound; common in Bell’s palsy.
What does CN VIII stand for?
Vestibulocochlear Nerve.
What do the Rinne and Weber tests assess?
Hearing: conductive vs. sensorineural hearing loss.
What does a positive Dix-Hallpike indicate?
BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo).
What does instability in the Romberg test suggest?
Vestibular dysfunction.
How is the gag reflex tested?
Stimulate the posterior pharynx and observe the gag response.
What does absent gag reflex indicate?
Lesions in CN IX (afferent) or CN X (efferent).
What is observed during palate elevation?
Uvula movement when patient says 'ah'; deviation indicates CN X lesion.
What does hoarseness or nasal tone indicate?
Dysphonia, suggesting CN X dysfunction.
How is shoulder shrug tested?
Patient shrugs shoulders against resistance; weakness indicates trapezius dysfunction.
What does weakness in head turn indicate?
SCM (sternocleidomastoid) involvement on the opposite side.
What does tongue deviation during protrusion indicate?
Tongue deviates toward the lesion (CN XII).
What does slurred speech indicate?
Dysarthria, common in bulbar palsy.
What are the findings in Bell’s Palsy?
Peripheral facial paralysis, hyperacusis, loss of taste.
What is a symptom of Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Severe facial pain in V2 or V3 distribution.
What are common findings in a brainstem stroke?
Dysarthria, dysphagia, loss of gag reflex.
What does Vestibular Schwannoma affect?
CN VIII (and often CN VII); leads to sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, facial weakness.
What does Guillain-Barré Syndrome affect?
Multiple cranial nerves (e.g., CN VII, IX); causes facial paralysis, dysphagia, absent reflexes.
How is CN I tested?
Olfactory Sensitivity Test with familiar scents (e.g., coffee).
What does reduced visual acuity indicate in CN II testing?
Possible optic neuritis or glaucoma.
What does fundoscopy inspect for?
Optic disc swelling or atrophy; indicates papilledema in raised intracranial pressure.
What does EOM Testing assess?
Extraocular movements; CN IV for vertical diplopia, CN VI for horizontal diplopia.
What does the pupillary reflex check?
Direct/consensual response to light; CN III damage causes fixed, dilated pupil.
What is assessed in facial sensation testing (CN V)?
Light touch and pain in V1, V2, V3 distributions.
What does the corneal reflex test?
Touch cornea lightly and observe blink; absent in CN V1 or CN VII lesions.
What is assessed during facial movements (CN VII)?
Smile, raise eyebrows, close eyes; peripheral lesions affect entire face.
What does taste testing assess in CN VII?
Taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue; loss indicates CN VII dysfunction.
What is the effect of CN VII dysfunction?
Affects the entire face.
How to test taste on the tongue?
Apply solutions to anterior 2/3 of tongue.
What tests are performed for CN VIII?
Rinne and Weber tests for hearing loss.
What indicates sensorineural loss?
Found in vestibular schwannoma.
What maneuver is performed for vertigo?
Dix-Hallpike maneuver.
What is BPPV?
Positive in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.
How to test CN IX/X?
Gag reflex by touching posterior pharynx; observe gag response.
What does an absent gag reflex indicate?
Absent in CN IX (afferent) or CN X (efferent) lesions.
How to check palate elevation?
Ask patient to say 'ah'; observe uvula.
What does uvula deviation indicate?
Uvula deviates away from CN X lesion.
What is assessed in voice quality?
Check for hoarseness or nasal tone.
What is dysphonia?
Impaired voice quality in CN X dysfunction.
How to test CN XI?
Shoulder shrug and head turn against resistance.
What indicates weakness in CN XI?
Weakness in neck dissection or spinal cord injury.
How to test CN XII?
Ask patient to stick out tongue.
What does tongue deviation indicate in CN XII palsy?
Tongue deviates toward lesion.
What is dysarthria?
Slurred speech, impaired in bulbar palsy (e.g., ALS).
What are the findings in Bell’s Palsy?
Unilateral facial paralysis, hyperacusis, loss of taste.
What is the treatment for Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Treated with carbamazepine.
What are the findings in Acoustic Neuroma?
Hearing loss, tinnitus, facial weakness.
How is Acoustic Neuroma diagnosed?
Diagnosed with MRI; linked to NF2.
What are the findings in Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Bilateral facial weakness, dysphagia.
What are the findings in Brainstem Stroke?
Dysarthria, dysphagia, gag reflex loss.
What causes Lateral Medullary Syndrome?
Occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA).
What are the findings in Lateral Medullary Syndrome?
Dysphagia, hoarseness, loss of gag reflex, pain/temp loss.
What causes Weber Syndrome?
Midbrain infarction (posterior cerebral artery).
What are the findings in Weber Syndrome?
'Down and out' eye, contralateral hemiparesis.
What causes Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Cavernous sinus thrombosis, tumors.
What are the findings in Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Ophthalmoplegia, facial numbness, proptosis, Horner’s syndrome.
What causes Jugular Foramen Syndrome?
Tumor or trauma affecting jugular foramen.
What are the findings in Jugular Foramen Syndrome?
Dysphonia, dysphagia, absent gag reflex, shoulder droop.
What sensation is preserved in Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
What is a common cause of Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Which nerves are involved in Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
What are the buzzwords for Infective Endocarditis?
What are the buzzwords for SLE (Lupus)?
What are the buzzwords for Multiple Sclerosis?
What are the buzzwords for Parkinson’s Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Crohn’s Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Hodgkin Lymphoma?
What are the buzzwords for Celiac Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Tetralogy of Fallot?
What are the buzzwords for Pulmonary Embolism?
What are the buzzwords for Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis?
What are the buzzwords for Pernicious Anemia?
What are the buzzwords for TTP (Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura)?
What are the buzzwords for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?
What are the buzzwords for G6PD Deficiency?
What are the buzzwords for Von Willebrand Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Sarcoidosis?
What are the buzzwords for Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?
What are the buzzwords for Primary Biliary Cholangitis?
What are the buzzwords for Hyper-IgM Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Tay-Sachs Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Niemann-Pick Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Fabry Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Hereditary Spherocytosis?
What are the buzzwords for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?
What are the buzzwords for Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Wilson Disease?
What are the buzzwords for Cystic Fibrosis?
What are the buzzwords for Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Marfan Syndrome?
What are the buzzwords for Pheochromocytoma?
What are the symptoms of a catecholamine-secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla?
What are the key features of Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)?
What are the key features of Zika Virus?
What is the tapeworm that causes liver/lung cysts?
What is Strongyloidiasis?
What is Amebiasis?
What disease does Yersinia pestis cause?
What causes Lyme Disease?
What are the key features of Rickettsial Diseases?
What is Typhoid Fever caused by?
What is Cysticercosis?
What is Japanese Encephalitis?
What causes Rheumatic Heart Disease?
What is Brucellosis?
What is MERS?
What is Q Fever?
What joints are affected in Osteoarthritis (OA)?
What joints are affected in Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
What joints are affected in Gout?
What joints are affected in Pseudogout?
What joints are affected in Psoriatic Arthritis?
What joints are affected in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What joints are affected in Reactive Arthritis?
What is the key feature of Reactive Arthritis?
What are the symptoms of Post-infectious Reactive Arthritis?
What joints are affected in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What are the key features of SLE?
What is the common presentation of Septic Arthritis?
What are the key features of JIA?
What condition is characterized by bronze diabetes?
What are the key features of Gonococcal Arthritis?
What syndrome is associated with Sarcoidosis?
What are the key features of Scleroderma?
What are the characteristics of Dermatomyositis/Polymyositis?
What is a key symptom of Fibromyalgia?
What is the presentation of Osteomyelitis with joint involvement?
What is the association of Charcot Joint (Neuropathic Arthropathy)?
What is a feature of Hyperparathyroidism?
What differentiates OA from RA?
What is the importance of recognizing patterns in joint diseases?
What are the key features of Chlamydia?
What is the discharge associated with Trichomoniasis?
What is the characteristic discharge for Candidiasis?
What are the key features of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
What are the key features of Secondary Syphilis?
What are the key features of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What are the key features of Haemophilus ducreyi (Chancroid)?
What is the characteristic discharge for Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)?
What are the key features of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?
What are the systemic symptoms of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What are the key features of Enteric STIs (e.g., proctitis)?
What are the systemic symptoms of Acute Retroviral Syndrome in HIV?
What is the characteristic discharge for Zika Virus?
What are the key features of Ectoparasitic Infections (e.g., Pubic Lice)?
What are the considerations for missing features in chronic vs. acute presentations?
What are overlap conditions that can present with mixed discharges?
What are the characteristics of Gonorrhea?
What are the characteristics of Chlamydia?
What are the characteristics of Trichomoniasis?
What are the characteristics of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?
What are the characteristics of Candidiasis (Yeast Infection)?
What are the characteristics of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
What are the characteristics of Syphilis (Primary)?
What are the characteristics of Syphilis (Secondary)?
What are the characteristics of Haemophilus ducreyi (Chancroid)?
What are the characteristics of Granuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)?
What are the characteristics of Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?
What are the characteristics of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
What are the characteristics of Mycoplasma Genitalium?
What are the characteristics of HPV (Condyloma Acuminata)?
What are the characteristics of Enteric STIs (Proctitis)?
What are the characteristics of Monkeypox?
What are the characteristics of Molluscum Contagiosum?
What are the types of painful and painless ulcers in STDs?
What is the rash location for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?
What are the key features of SLE?
What is the rash location for Dermatomyositis?
What are the key features of Dermatomyositis?
What are the key features of Psoriatic Arthritis?
What are the key features of Rheumatic Fever?
What is the rash location for Reactive Arthritis?
What are the key features of Reactive Arthritis?
What is the rash location for Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What are the key features of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
What are the key features of Scleroderma?
What are the key features of Cutaneous Vasculitis?
What are the key features of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)?
What are the key features of Gout (Tophaceous)?
What are the key features of Behçet Syndrome?
What are the key features of Sarcoidosis?
What is the rash location for Vasculitis (Polyarteritis Nodosa)?
What are the key features of Vasculitis (Polyarteritis Nodosa)?
What are the key features of Sjogren Syndrome?
What are the key features of Erythema Multiforme?
What is the rash location for Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)?
What are the key features of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)?
What are the key features of Pemphigus Vulgaris?
What are the key features of Bullous Pemphigoid?
What are the key features of Erythema Nodosum?
What are the key features of SLE (Subacute Cutaneous)?
What are the characteristics of SLE (Subacute Cutaneous)?
What are the features of Psoriasis (Inverse)?
What is erythema nodosum associated with?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Beta-Lactams?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Macrolides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Fluoroquinolones?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Tetracyclines?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Sulfonamides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Aminoglycosides?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antifungals?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antivirals?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antiparasitics?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Immunomodulators?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Antineoplastics?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Anticoagulants?
What are the target diseases/pathogens for Diuretics?
What is a connection across drug classes regarding Beta-lactams?
What is a treatment evolution trend for gonorrhea?
What is an expanding role of antifungals?
What are Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors examples?
What do Beta-Lactam/Beta-Lactamase Inhibitors target?
Broad-spectrum coverage; includes resistant organisms like MSSA, anaerobes, and gram-negatives.
What do Anti-Leprosy Drugs target?
Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy), dermatitis herpetiformis (dapsone).
What do Specialized Tetracyclines target?
MDR infections including MRSA, Acinetobacter, and resistant gram-negatives.
What do Lincosamides target?
Anaerobic infections, aspiration pneumonia, gram-positive soft tissue infections.
What do Specialized Antifungals target?
Prophylaxis in high-risk immunocompromised patients (e.g., leukemia, transplant).
What do Nitroimidazoles target?
Trichomoniasis, giardiasis, amebiasis (alternative to metronidazole).
What do Rifamycin Derivatives target?
Traveler's diarrhea, hepatic encephalopathy prevention, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO).
What do Anti-HIV Regimens target?
ART combinations targeting reverse transcriptase, integrase, and protease inhibitors.
What do Calcineurin Inhibitors target?
Transplant rejection prophylaxis, autoimmune diseases (e.g., psoriasis).
What do Antihyperlipidemic Agents target?
Hyperlipidemia; adjunct in familial hypercholesterolemia; pruritus in cholestasis.
What do Iron Chelators target?
Iron overload (e.g., secondary to frequent transfusions in thalassemia or sickle cell anemia).
What do Prostaglandin Analogues target?
NSAID-induced gastric ulcers, labor induction, postpartum hemorrhage.
What is a last-line therapy for advanced resistance management?
Colistin/Polymyxin B for extensively drug-resistant gram-negative infections.
What are safe drugs for pregnancy-specific medications?
Highlight safe drugs for infectious and autoimmune diseases (e.g., nitrofurantoin, azathioprine).
What diseases are targeted by Ceftazidime and Meropenem?
What diseases are treated with Streptomycin and Gentamicin?
What types of infections are targeted by Colistin and Polymyxin B?
What does Delafloxacin cover?
Broad-spectrum coverage, including MRSA and complicated skin infections
What does Fidaxomicin treat?
C. difficile infections; alternative to vancomycin for severe or recurrent cases
What infections are treated with Tigecycline?
MDR infections, including Acinetobacter, Klebsiella, and MRSA
What is the use of Andexanet alfa?
Reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban)
What are the key features of the omissions chart?
What emerging treatments are relevant for outbreak-related questions?
What is Andexanet alfa used for?
Reversal agent for factor Xa inhibitors (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban).
What conditions are associated with S3?
CHF, dilated cardiomyopathy; normal in young athletes or pregnancy.
How does S3 change with position?
Louder in left lateral decubitus position; decreased with standing.
How does S4 change with preload?
Louder with increased preload (e.g., squatting); absent in atrial fibrillation.
What conditions are associated with mitral regurgitation?
Mitral valve prolapse, infective endocarditis, ischemic heart disease.
How does mitral regurgitation change with position?
Louder with squatting; softer with standing or Valsalva.
What conditions are associated with aortic stenosis?
Calcific valve disease, congenital bicuspid valve.
How does aortic stenosis change with position?
Louder with squatting; decreased with Valsalva or standing.
What conditions are associated with aortic regurgitation?
Infective endocarditis, aortic dissection, rheumatic disease.
How does aortic regurgitation change with position?
Louder with squatting and expiration; softer with standing.
What conditions are associated with mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic fever; often follows atrial fibrillation.
How does mitral stenosis change with position?
Louder in left lateral decubitus; softer with standing.
What conditions are associated with tricuspid regurgitation?
Right heart failure, infective endocarditis (IV drug use).
How does tricuspid regurgitation change with position?
Louder with inspiration; softer with expiration.
What conditions are associated with pulmonary stenosis?
Congenital valve abnormalities, carcinoid syndrome.
What conditions are associated with PDA?
Congenital; often in premature infants or congenital rubella.
What is the sound associated with Pericardial Friction Rub?
Scratchy, high-pitched sound during systole and diastole
When is the Pericardial Friction Rub best heard?
Best heard leaning forward; unaffected by positional changes
What effect does the Valsalva maneuver have on murmurs?
Decreases preload, enhancing murmurs like HCM while softening others
What is the description of Wheezes?
High-pitched, continuous, musical sounds during expiration (or inspiration)
What conditions are associated with Stridor?
Upper airway obstruction: croup, epiglottitis, foreign body
What is the description of Pleural Friction Rub?
Creaking or grating sound during both phases of respiration
What conditions are associated with Pleural Friction Rub?
Pleuritis, pulmonary embolism, pleural effusion
What conditions are associated with Decreased or Absent Breath Sounds?
Pneumothorax, pleural effusion, atelectasis, severe COPD
What is the description of Bronchial Breath Sounds?
Hollow, tubular sounds over consolidated lung areas
What conditions are associated with Bronchial Breath Sounds?
Pneumonia with consolidation, lung abscess
What is the description of Inspiratory Wheezes?
High-pitched, musical sounds primarily on inspiration
What conditions are associated with Inspiratory Wheezes?
Tracheal stenosis, laryngomalacia, severe asthma
What are Post-tussive Crackles classic for?
Classic for tuberculosis (TB); also seen in bronchiectasis
What conditions are associated with Squawk sounds?
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis, interstitial lung diseases
What conditions are associated with Fine Velcro Crackles?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; hallmark of restrictive lung diseases
What are the soft, high-pitched crackles during inspiration indicative of?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; hallmark of restrictive lung diseases.
What do bubbling sounds resemble and indicate?
Low-pitched, gurgling noises; indicative of severe pulmonary edema or drowning.
What does tracheal tugging sound indicate?
Inspiratory stridor associated with upper airway obstruction, croup, or retrosternal goiter.
What is the death rattle?
Gurgling sounds during terminal stages of life; accumulation of secretions in upper airways.
What are post-tussive crackles a clue for?
They are a subtle but high-yield clue for TB or bronchiectasis.
What is the significance of dynamic maneuvers in lung sound assessment?
Enhances detection of conditions like pleural effusion and pulmonary edema.
What does C6 affect?
Lateral forearm and thumb; elbow flexion, wrist extension; sensory loss in thumb area.
What is the myotome for C7?
Elbow extension, wrist flexion; weak triceps reflex; sensory loss in middle finger.
What is the myotome for T1?
Finger abduction/adduction; difficulty with interossei muscles (e.g., spreading fingers).
What does T4 correspond to?
Nipple line; sensory loss at nipple line; useful in spinal cord level mapping.
What is the dermatome for T10?
Umbilicus; sensory loss at umbilicus; landmark for abdominal surgeries or spinal injury.
What does L5 affect?
Lateral lower leg, dorsum of foot; great toe extension; sensory loss on foot dorsum.
What is the myotome for S2-S4?
Anal sphincter control; loss of bowel/bladder function; saddle anesthesia.
What is a key point about dermatomal overlap?
Adjacent dermatomes overlap, making pure sensory loss uncommon.
What are the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg?
What artery/vein is associated with the anterior compartment of the leg?
Anterior tibial artery/vein
What is a key clinical relevance of the anterior compartment?
Foot drop in deep fibular nerve injury; tested via dorsiflexion of foot.
What are the muscles in the lateral compartment of the leg?
What nerve is associated with the lateral compartment of the leg?
Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve
What is a key clinical relevance of the lateral compartment?
Eversion weakness with superficial fibular nerve injury; sensory loss over dorsum of foot.
What are the muscles in the superficial posterior compartment of the leg?
What is a key clinical relevance of the superficial posterior compartment?
Plantarflexion weakness in tibial nerve injury; tested by toe walking.
What are the muscles in the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
What artery/vein is associated with the deep posterior compartment of the leg?
What is a key clinical relevance of the deep posterior compartment?
Pain and swelling in compartment syndrome; tested by plantarflexion or inversion of foot.
What are the 5 Ps of compartment syndrome?
What is the function of CD19 in B cells?
Markers for B cell lineage; targeted by rituximab (anti-CD20).
What is the role of CD21 in B cells?
Complement receptor; site of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) entry into B cells.
What is the function of CD40 in B cells?
Interacts with CD40L on T helper cells for class switching.
What is the function of CD4 in T helper cells?
Co-receptor for MHC II; essential for T helper cell activation.
What is the role of CD40L (CD154) in T helper cells?
Activates B cells via CD40 interaction; key in immunoglobulin class switching.
What is the function of CD4, CD25, FOXP3 in regulatory T cells?
Suppress immune responses; FOXP3 mutations cause IPEX syndrome.
What is the function of CD16 (FcγRIII) in natural killer cells?
Recognizes antibodies for antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity.
What is the function of CD34 in hematopoietic stem cells?
Marker for identifying stem cells; critical in stem cell transplants.
What role does CCR5 play in macrophages?
HIV entry co-receptor; facilitates viral infection in macrophages.
What is the function of CD11c in dendritic cells?
Myeloid dendritic cell marker; essential for antigen presentation.
What is the role of DEC-205 (CD205) in dendritic cells?
Facilitates antigen uptake and presentation.
What is the function of CD16b in neutrophils?
Low-affinity Fc receptor for IgG; involved in antibody-mediated phagocytosis.
What do NKG2C/NKG2D receptors recognize?
Stress-induced ligands on infected/tumor cells; enhances cytotoxicity.
What does CD57 indicate in NK cells?
Marker for mature NK cells with reduced proliferative capacity.
What is the function of CTLA-4 in regulatory T cells?
Immune checkpoint molecule; downregulates immune responses.
What role does CD42b (GpIb) play in platelets?
Binds von Willebrand factor; essential for platelet adhesion during hemostasis.
What does CD62P (P-selectin) mediate in platelets?
Mediates platelet interaction with leukocytes and endothelial cells.
What do VEGF receptors (VEGFR-1, VEGFR-2) stimulate?
Stimulate angiogenesis; targeted by bevacizumab in cancer therapy.
What is the function of ICAM-1 and VCAM-1 in endothelial cells?
Facilitate leukocyte adhesion and transmigration; upregulated in inflammation.
What do endothelin receptors (ETA, ETB) mediate?
Mediate vasoconstriction; endothelin antagonists used for pulmonary hypertension.
What is the function of EGFR (HER1) in epithelial cells?
Promotes cell proliferation; targeted by cetuximab in cancers.
What do integrins (e.g., α6β4) do in epithelial cells?
Anchor epithelial cells to basement membrane; mutations linked to cancer metastasis.
What does the Angiotensin II Receptor (AT1) promote in smooth muscle cells?
Promotes vasoconstriction and aldosterone release; blocked by ARBs.
What do β-Adrenergic Receptors (β1, β2) regulate in smooth muscle cells?
Regulate contraction; β2 agonists relax airway smooth muscle in asthma.
What is the role of β1-Adrenergic Receptors in cardiac myocytes?
Increase heart rate and contractility; β-blockers reduce workload in CHF.
What do Muscarinic Receptors (M2) do in cardiac myocytes?
Decrease heart rate; blocked by atropine in bradycardia.
What does the Insulin Receptor stimulate in hepatocytes?
Stimulates glucose uptake and glycogen synthesis; defective in type 2 diabetes.
What is the function of the LDL Receptor in hepatocytes?
Mediates cholesterol uptake; mutations cause familial hypercholesterolemia.
What does the Glucagon Receptor promote in hepatocytes?
Promotes gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis; critical in fasting state.
What does the Leptin Receptor (ObR) regulate in adipocytes?
Regulates appetite and energy balance; mutations linked to obesity.
What do Beta-Adrenergic Receptors (β1, β3) stimulate in adipocytes?
Stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.
What is a clinical use of Mineralocorticoid Receptor antagonists?
What is the clinical relevance of RANK inhibitors?
What does LDL receptor defects cause?
What does Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB) indicate?
May mask ischemia; associated with structural heart disease
What is the key feature of STEMI?
What are the key features of NSTEMI/Ischemia?
What does hyperkalemia show on an ECG?
What are the key features of hypokalemia?
What is the clinical relevance of Atrial Fibrillation?
What are the key features of WPW syndrome?
What is Torsades de Pointes characterized by?
What indicates a Left Bundle Branch Block (LBBB)?
What is a common pitfall in reading ECG?
What is the clinical relevance of neural tube defects (NTDs)?
What are the clinical presentations of Neural Tube Defects?
What are examples of Neural Tube Defects?
What is the clinical presentation of Gastroschisis?
Intestines protrude through abdominal wall, no peritoneal covering
Is Gastroschisis associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
Not associated with chromosomal abnormalities
What is the clinical presentation of Omphalocele?
Intestines protrude into umbilical sac, covered by peritoneum
Is Omphalocele associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
Associated with chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., trisomy 13, 18)
What are the clinical presentations of Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF)?
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH)?
What are the components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
What are the clinical presentations of Persistent Truncus Arteriosus?
What is Persistent Truncus Arteriosus associated with?
Strong association with DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion)
What are the clinical presentations of Transposition of the Great Vessels?
Cyanosis; survival depends on shunts (PDA, ASD, or VSD)
What are the clinical presentations of Hirschsprung Disease?
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?
What are the components of VACTERL Association?
What are the clinical presentations of Duodenal Atresia?
What are the clinical presentations of Congenital Hypothyroidism?
What are the clinical presentations of Meckel’s Diverticulum?
What are the clinical presentations of Potter Sequence?
What is the outcome if bilateral renal agenesis is present in Potter Sequence?
Fatal if bilateral renal agenesis is present
What are the clinical presentations of Holoprosencephaly?
What are the clinical presentations of Cleft Lip and Palate?
What conditions are linked to Down syndrome?
What is a clinical presentation of pyloric stenosis?
Non-bilious projectile vomiting, olive-shaped abdominal mass
What is the typical symptom of pancreas divisum?
Usually asymptomatic; recurrent pancreatitis in some cases
What is a clinical presentation of a branchial cleft cyst?
Painless lateral neck mass; does not move with swallowing
What are the clinical presentations of cleft lip and palate?
Feeding difficulties, nasal regurgitation
What are the components of cleft lip and palate?
Cleft lip: Maxillary + medial nasal prominences. Cleft palate: Lateral palatine shelves
What are the clinical presentations of DiGeorge syndrome?
Hypocalcemia, T-cell deficiency, cardiac defects
What are the clinical presentations of Ebstein anomaly?
Apical displacement of the tricuspid valve, cyanosis, heart failure
What are the clinical presentations of twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
Donor twin: anemia, hypovolemia; Recipient twin: polycythemia, CHF
What is the symptom of persistent left superior vena cava?
Usually asymptomatic but relevant in central venous access
What is the persistent left superior vena cava?
Failure of left cardinal vein regression. Drains into coronary sinus. Usually asymptomatic but relevant in central venous access.
What is the VACTERL Association?
Multifactorial condition with vertebral defects, anal atresia, cardiac defects, TEF, renal defects, and limb anomalies. Diagnosed when 3+ anomalies are present.
What is caudal regression syndrome?
Abnormal development of the caudal spine, leading to sacral agenesis and lower limb paralysis. Strongly associated with maternal diabetes.
What is a persistent foramen ovale (PFO)?
Failure of septum primum and secundum fusion. Can cause paradoxical embolism and stroke. Often asymptomatic until provoked.
What are urachal and vitelline defects?
Embryological remnants that can lead to clinically significant anomalies.
What is twin-twin transfusion syndrome?
A high-yield topic for monochorionic pregnancies involving vascular complications.
What is holoprosencephaly?
Genetic mutations (e.g., sonic hedgehog) tied to severe malformations like cyclopia or cleft palate.
What is a urachal cyst?
Partial failure of urachus obliteration, presenting as a midline fluid-filled mass between bladder and umbilicus. Risk for infection and malignancy.
What is a vitelline duct cyst?
Partial failure of vitelline duct obliteration, leading to abdominal pain and risk of volvulus. Can be confused with Meckel’s diverticulum.
What is accessory pancreatic tissue?
Ectopic pancreatic tissue in stomach or duodenum that may cause obstruction or pancreatitis. Detected incidentally or with symptoms.
What is persistent Müllerian duct syndrome?
Failure of Müllerian duct regression in males, resulting in male internal genitalia with a uterus and external male genitalia.
What is 5α-reductase deficiency?
Inability to convert testosterone to DHT, causing ambiguous genitalia in males and masculinization at puberty. XY genotype with normal male internal genitalia.
What is twin reversal arterial perfusion (TRAP)?
Avascular anomaly in monochorionic twins where an acardiac twin depends on a normal twin for circulation. Rare and high-risk condition.
What is Müllerian agenesis?
Failure of paramesonephric duct development, leading to primary amenorrhea and normal secondary sexual characteristics. Also called Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome.
What is jejunal and ileal atresia?
Vascular disruption during development causing bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. 'Apple peel' deformity on imaging; associated with cystic fibrosis.
What is a single umbilical artery?
Failure of umbilical artery to form, associated with congenital or chromosomal abnormalities. Seen on fetal ultrasound.
What conditions are associated with Simple Squamous Epithelium?
ARDS, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, atherosclerosis
What is a key function of Simple Squamous Epithelium?
Common in structures requiring diffusion (e.g., alveoli in gas exchange)
What are the histological characteristics of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Multiple layers with surface keratin
What conditions are associated with Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Psoriasis, actinic keratosis, squamous cell carcinoma
What is a key function of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Keratinized)?
Provides robust protection; keratinization prevents water loss
What are the histological characteristics of Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Multiple layers without keratin
What conditions are associated with Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Barrett’s esophagus, esophagitis, vaginal atrophy
What is a key transformation related to Stratified Squamous Epithelium (Non-keratinized)?
Transforms to columnar epithelium in Barrett’s due to chronic acid exposure
What are the histological characteristics of Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Appears stratified; all cells touch the basement membrane
What conditions are associated with Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Chronic bronchitis, smoking-induced metaplasia, Kartagener syndrome
What is a key effect of smoking on Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium?
Smoking transforms it to squamous epithelium
What are the histological characteristics of Transitional Epithelium?
Stratified with dome-shaped apical cells
What conditions are associated with Transitional Epithelium?
Urothelial carcinoma, interstitial cystitis
What is a key function of Transitional Epithelium?
Specialized for stretch in urinary tract; common site for cancer
What is a key feature of Cuboidal Epithelium?
Found in glandular and absorptive tissues; prone to autoimmune and ischemic damage
What are the histological characteristics of Columnar Epithelium?
Tall cells with basally located nuclei
What is a key function of Columnar Epithelium?
Goblet cells (intestinal variant) produce mucus; dysplasia leads to malignancy
What are the histological characteristics of Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Dense microvilli on apical surface
What conditions are associated with Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Celiac disease, Fanconi syndrome, microvillus inclusion disease
What is a key function of Brush Border (Microvilli)?
Essential for nutrient absorption; damaged in celiac disease (villous atrophy)
What are the histological characteristics of Hyaline Cartilage?
Chondrocytes in lacunae, smooth matrix
What happens to Hyaline Cartilage in wear-and-tear conditions?
Degenerates in wear-and-tear conditions like osteoarthritis
What is a key feature of Elastic Cartilage?
Retains flexibility; hematoma can cause 'cauliflower ear'
What is a key function of Fibrocartilage?
Withstands compression and tensile forces; common in axial skeleton disorders
What conditions are associated with Skeletal Muscle?
Muscular dystrophies, rhabdomyolysis, polymyositis
What happens to Skeletal Muscle with resistance training?
Undergoes hypertrophy with resistance training; degenerates in dystrophies
What conditions are associated with Cardiac Muscle?
Myocarditis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, myocardial infarction
What is a key feature of Cardiac Muscle?
Intercalated discs ensure efficient electrical conduction; necrosis in infarction
What is a key feature of Smooth Muscle?
Involuntary contraction; affected in autoimmune diseases (e.g., scleroderma)
What are the histological characteristics of Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
Parallel collagen fibers, fibroblasts
What conditions are associated with Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
Tendinopathy, ACL injuries, Marfan syndrome
What happens to Dense Regular Connective Tissue in genetic conditions?
Elasticity impaired in genetic conditions
What are the characteristics of Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
What conditions are associated with Dense Regular Connective Tissue?
What are the characteristics of Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?
What is the function of Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?
Withstands multidirectional forces; overgrowth causes keloids.
What is the function of Reticular Tissue?
Provides structure for immune cells; hyperplasia in infections or malignancies.
What is a consequence of excess fat in Adipose Tissue?
Leads to insulin resistance and inflammatory cytokine release.
What is a characteristic of bone remodeling?
Constantly remodeled; prone to fractures in osteoporosis.
What conditions are associated with Lymphoid Tissue?
What is a function of Lymphoid Tissue?
Critical for immune response; involved in neoplastic and infectious processes.
What is metaplasia commonly seen in?
In stratified squamous (e.g., Barrett’s esophagus) and pseudostratified epithelium (e.g., smoking-induced metaplasia).
What condition is associated with dysfunction of Ciliated Epithelium?
Kartagener syndrome; leads to impaired mucociliary clearance.
What is the role of Neuroendocrine Cells?
Secrete hormones; associated with paraneoplastic syndromes.
What conditions are associated with Neuroendocrine Cells?
What is the function of Alveolar Macrophages?
Engulf pathogens and particulate matter; critical for innate immunity.
What conditions are associated with Eosinophils?
What is the histological characteristic of Columnar Epithelium with Goblet Cells?
Tall cells with goblet cells in metaplasia.
What condition is associated with Columnar Epithelium with Goblet Cells?
Barrett’s esophagus; progression to adenocarcinoma.
What conditions are associated with Spindle Cells?
What cancers are associated with psammoma bodies?
What cancers are associated with signet ring cells?
What are asbestos bodies?
What is honeycomb lung characterized by?
What are lumpy-bumpy deposits?
What does tram-track appearance indicate?
What are spikes on BM indicative of?
What are koilocytes?
What are psammoma bodies?
What are Howell-Jolly bodies?
What are Auer rods?
What are Reed-Sternberg cells?
What are Call-Exner bodies?
What are Schiller-Duval bodies?
What are foamy macrophages?
What are ground-glass hepatocytes?
What are Councilman bodies?
What are Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses?
What is hyperkeratosis?
What is cerebral amyloid angiopathy?
What is the risk associated with cerebral amyloid angiopathy?
What conditions are ring sideroblasts associated with?
Which viruses are associated with Cowdry Type A inclusions?
What are Birbeck granules?
What do Cowdry Type A inclusions and Birbeck granules expand coverage of?
What are the cocci examples and associated diseases?
What are the enteric rods examples and associated diseases?
What are the non-enteric rods examples and associated diseases?
What are the acid-fast pathogens examples and associated diseases?
What are the staining techniques for acid-fast pathogens?
What are the spirochetes examples and associated diseases?
What are the staining techniques for spirochetes?
What are the intracellular pathogens examples and associated diseases?
What is Darkfield Microscopy used for?
Direct visualization for non-gram-stainable bacteria (e.g., Treponema pallidum).
What does India Ink highlight?
Highlights capsule; used in CSF for meningitis (e.g., Cryptococcus neoformans).
What is the role of Pathogen-Specific Therapies?
Empiric therapy tailored based on gram stain results.
What are atypical pathogens?
Non-responsive organisms requiring clinical suspicion and specialized diagnostics.
What does India Ink stain for fungi?
What does Gomori Methenamine Silver (GMS) stain for?
What does GMS, KOH stain for fungi?
What does Giemsa Stain diagnose in Leishmania?
What is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites?
Tear-drop shaped with 'falling leaf' motility
What is the diagnostic feature of Entamoeba histolytica?
Cysts with up to four nuclei; trophozoites with ingested RBCs
What is the use of Auramine-Rhodamine Stain?
For Mycobacteria; higher sensitivity than Ziehl-Neelsen
What is critical in diagnosing Mucormycosis?
Distinguishing non-septate hyphae from septate Aspergillus
What is the mechanism of action of TSST-1 from Staphylococcus aureus?
Superantigen; activates T cells, causing cytokine storm
What is the result of Cholera Toxin activation?
Increased cAMP → Cl⁻ secretion, causing watery diarrhea
What is the mechanism of action of Anthrax Toxin?
Edema factor (increases cAMP), lethal factor (MAPK inhibition)
What are examples of superantigens?
TSST-1 (Staphylococcus aureus), erythrogenic toxins (S. pyogenes)
What is the mechanism of action of Shiga toxin?
Inhibits ribosomes, while botulinum toxin blocks neurotransmitter release
What is the mechanism of action of Yersinia Outer Proteins?
Inhibit phagocytosis, disrupt actin cytoskeleton
What is a diagnostic note for Francisella and Yersinia?
Require high clinical suspicion in endemic or exposure scenarios.
What is required for diagnosing Francisella and Yersinia?
High clinical suspicion in endemic or exposure settings.
What do Bartonella toxins appear as histologically?
Angioproliferative lesions in bacillary angiomatosis.
What is a key post-infectious sequela of Campylobacter jejuni?
Guillain-Barré syndrome due to molecular mimicry.
What are zoonotic pathogens?
Rare but high-yield for USMLE, like Yersinia pestis and Coxiella burnetii.
What do enterotoxins add to diarrhea mechanisms?
Complexity, with examples like Bacillus cereus and Salmonella typhi.
What does Clostridioides difficile Toxin A do?
Activates inflammatory response and increases permeability.
What type of food poisoning is associated with Bacillus cereus?
Food poisoning with rapid onset of vomiting.
What is the treatment for Clostridioides difficile?
Vancomycin (oral) or fidaxomicin; avoid broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What does the RIPE therapy for Mycobacterium tuberculosis include?
Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol.
What are the distinguishing factors of Gram-negative cocci?
Oxidase-positive; grows on Thayer-Martin media.
What are the distinguishing factors of dimorphic fungi?
Endemic to specific regions; broad-based budding (Blastomyces).
What are the distinguishing factors of RNA viruses?
Segmented genome (Influenza); reverse transcriptase (HIV).
What are the distinguishing factors of retroviruses?
Reverse transcription; integrates into host genome.
What are the diagnostic clues for infectious diseases?
What are the morphological key points for infectious diseases?
What is the distinguishing feature of Brucella spp.?
Acquired from unpasteurized dairy or contact with infected animals.
What is the distinguishing feature of Anaplasma spp. and Ehrlichia spp.?
Morulae in monocytes (Ehrlichia) or neutrophils (Anaplasma)
What disease is caused by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Paracoccidioidomycosis: chronic pulmonary lesions
What are some additional intracellular bacteria?
Brucella, Francisella, Coxiella, Rickettsia, Anaplasma, Ehrlichia
Why include Paracoccidioides and Talaromyces?
Geographically specific fungi align with global epidemiology focus
What type of virus is associated with aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients?
DNA virus - Non-enveloped
What is a distinguishing factor of Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?
Captains-wheel appearance; endemic to South America.
What is a distinguishing factor of Brucella spp.?
Causes brucellosis; transmitted via unpasteurized dairy.
What is a diagnostic requirement for Coxiella burnetii?
Diagnosed via serology or PCR; culture is hazardous.
What is the importance of Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP)?
Assessment of heart function and fluid status.
What does Jugular Venous Pressure (JVP) reflect?
Right atrial pressure, indirectly measuring central venous pressure (CVP).
Which vein is preferred for measuring JVP?
Internal jugular vein; external jugular is less reliable.
What does the c wave in JVP represent?
Bulging of tricuspid valve during RV systole; exaggerated in tricuspid regurgitation.
What does the x descent in JVP signify?
Atrial relaxation; reduced in tricuspid regurgitation, absent in tamponade.
What does the v wave indicate in JVP?
Passive filling of RA during RV systole; prominent in tricuspid regurgitation.
What does the y descent in JVP represent?
Rapid emptying of RA into RV during diastole; exaggerated in constrictive pericarditis.
What is a clinical finding of right-sided heart failure related to JVP?
Elevated JVP, positive hepatojugular reflux.
What does loss of the a wave in JVP signify?
No coordinated atrial contraction; seen in atrial fibrillation.
What does a prominent v wave in JVP indicate?
Backflow of blood into the RA during systole; seen in tricuspid regurgitation.
What is the JVP finding in superior vena cava syndrome?
Elevated JVP without pulsations; obstruction of venous drainage.
How should a patient be positioned to measure JVP?
Reclined at a 30–45° angle with relaxed neck muscles.
What is the measurement technique for JVP?
Measure from sternal angle to top of venous pulsation; add 5 cm for CVP.
What differentiates venous pulsation from arterial pulsation?
Venous is biphasic and non-palpable; arterial is monophasic and palpable.
What is systolic heart failure?
Impaired contraction of the left ventricle; reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF).
What are common causes of systolic heart failure?
Ischemic heart disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension.
What is diastolic heart failure?
Impaired relaxation of the left ventricle; preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF).
What are common causes of diastolic heart failure?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, chronic hypertension, aortic stenosis.
What is a key feature of left-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary congestion, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
What can lead to right-sided heart failure?
Vular disease can lead to right-sided failure (cor pulmonale).
What is right-sided heart failure characterized by?
Right ventricle fails to pump effectively, causing: - Peripheral edema - Ascites - Hepatomegaly - JVD
What are the consequences of right-sided heart failure?
Can lead to: - Pulmonary hypertension - Left-sided heart failure
What are the symptoms of high-output heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Warm extremities - Bounding pulses - Low systemic vascular resistance
What conditions can cause high-output heart failure?
Conditions include: - Severe anemia - Hyperthyroidism - AV fistulas
What are the symptoms of low-output heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Cold extremities - Fatigue - Hypotension
What conditions can cause low-output heart failure?
Conditions include: - Ischemic heart disease - Cardiomyopathies
What are the symptoms of chronic heart failure?
Symptoms include: - Gradual worsening of fatigue - Dyspnea
What is the role of neurohormonal activation in heart failure?
It includes: - RAAS promotes fluid retention - Sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate
What are the compensatory mechanisms in heart failure?
Initially adaptive (increased preload), but eventually maladaptive (ventricular remodeling).
What distinguishes systolic heart failure from diastolic heart failure?
HFrEF has reduced EF; HFpEF preserves EF but with impaired filling.
What are the core treatments for systolic heart failure (HFrEF)?
Core treatments include: - ACE inhibitors/ARBs - Beta-blockers - Aldosterone antagonists
What do diuretics do in heart failure treatment?
Relieve pulmonary congestion and volume overload; provide symptomatic relief only.
What is the mechanism of action for digoxin in heart failure?
Increases contractility and reduces heart rate; reserved for persistent symptoms.
What is the treatment focus for diastolic heart failure (HFpEF)?
Control hypertension and manage atrial fibrillation.
What is a key treatment for acute decompensated heart failure?
IV diuretics (e.g., furosemide) and vasodilators (e.g., nitroglycerin).
What are the treatments for right-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary vasodilators (e.g., sildenafil, bosentan) reduce pulmonary vascular resistance.
What are vasodilators used for in heart failure?
What is the treatment for High-Output Heart Failure?
What are the symptoms of Left-Sided Heart Failure?
What are the symptoms of Right-Sided Heart Failure?
What are the physical exam findings for heart failure?
What are the chest X-ray findings in heart failure?
What lab markers are used to diagnose heart failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the symptoms of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What are the exam findings for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What diagnostic tests are used for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the prognosis for patients with Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What are the differences between HFrEF and HFpEF?
What are the initial steps in heart failure management?
What lifestyle modifications are recommended for heart failure?
What is the stepwise pharmacologic therapy for HFrEF?
What is the stepwise pharmacologic therapy for HFpEF?
What is the management for acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the management for acute decompensated heart failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What advanced therapies are available for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What are the causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the standard treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What advanced therapies are available for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What are the clinical presentations of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?
How is Restrictive Cardiomyopathy diagnosed?
What is the treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What are the clinical presentations of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy?
How is Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy diagnosed?
What is the treatment for Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the clinical presentations of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the risk factors for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
How do you differentiate between RCM and Constrictive Pericarditis?
What is the therapy focus for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy?
What is the therapy focus for Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
What is the core therapy for Systolic HF (HFrEF)?
What is the mechanism of action for Diuretics in heart failure?
What is the treatment for Diastolic HF (HFpEF)?
What is the treatment for Diastolic Heart Failure (HFpEF)?
What is the role of Spironolactone in HFpEF?
What are the treatments for Acute Heart Failure?
What is the pathophysiology of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What are the clinical features of Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What is the treatment for Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What are the clinical features of Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What is the treatment for Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What are the clinical features of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What is the treatment for Restrictive Cardiomyopathy (RCM)?
What is the pathophysiology of Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What are the clinical features of Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What is the treatment for Arrhythmogenic RV Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)?
What is the pathophysiology of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What are the clinical features of Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What is the treatment for Peripartum Cardiomyopathy?
What is the pathophysiology of Distributive Shock?
What is the treatment for Obstructive Shock?
What is the pathophysiology of Neurogenic Shock?
What is a key insight regarding Heart Failure?
What is a key insight regarding Types of Shock?
What is a mucinous cystadenocarcinoma?
A malignant tumor that is large, multiloculated, and mucus-producing.
What is a clear cell carcinoma?
An aggressive tumor with clear cytoplasm, associated with endometriosis.
What does an elevated CA-125 indicate?
Elevated in epithelial ovarian cancers; limited specificity in premenopausal women.
What is the treatment for germ cell tumors?
Surgery + chemotherapy (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin).
What is the critical role of debunking surgery?
It is essential in managing advanced disease, specifically in ovarian cancer.
What does Stage IV indicate in ovarian cancer?
Distant metastases (e.g., liver, pleura); advanced disease with a palliative focus in some cases.
What is the clinical relevance of CA-125?
Useful for monitoring epithelial ovarian cancers; not diagnostic in early stages.
What does AFP signify in cancer diagnosis?
Diagnostic marker for yolk sac tumors; also elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma.
What do BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations confer susceptibility to?
High-grade serous ovarian carcinoma; PARP inhibitors improve survival.
What do BRAF/CTNNB1 mutations guide?
Targeted therapy for low-grade serous and endometrioid carcinomas.
What does the Expanded Tumor Marker Algorithm suggest for pre-menopausal women?
Likely functional cysts; markers include β-hCG, LDH, AFP, hCG.
What does an elevated CA-125 suggest in post-menopausal women?
Malignancy; HE4 increases specificity for epithelial cancers.
What is the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI)?
Combines ultrasound findings, menopausal status, and CA-125 levels.
What are Krukenberg tumors?
Metastatic tumors from gastric or colon cancer; signet ring cells on histology.
What do granulosa cell tumors secrete?
Estrogen; monitored for endometrial hyperplasia or carcinoma.
What is the mechanism of action for PARP inhibitors?
Inhibits DNA repair, leading to cell death in BRCA-deficient cells.
What is the role of Pembrolizumab?
Enhances T cell-mediated immune response in mismatch repair-deficient tumors.
What do Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors inhibit?
VEGFR, PDGFR, FGFR signaling in angiogenesis-related pathways.
What is the goal of cytoreductive surgery?
Remove all visible disease to <1 cm residual in advanced epithelial ovarian cancer.
What does fertility-sparing surgery involve?
Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for early-stage germ cell or sex cord tumors.
What is included in staging surgery?
Hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, lymph node sampling for early-stage epithelial ovarian cancer.
What is the indication for secondary debulking?
Performed if disease-free interval is >6 months in recurrent ovarian cancer.
What cancers are associated with Hereditary Breast and Ovarian Cancer (HBOC) syndrome?
Breast, ovarian, pancreatic, prostate cancers.
What is the screening recommendation for Lynch Syndrome?
Annual transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial biopsy.
What is the significance of Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome?
Associated with GI polyps, breast, and ovarian cancers; requires routine imaging.
What cancers are associated with Li-Fraumeni Syndrome?
Breast, sarcoma, brain, adrenocortical carcinoma.
What is Li-Fraumeni Syndrome associated with?
What are the components of comprehensive cancer screening protocols?
What is the purpose of surgical prevention in cancer risk reduction?
What is the role of chemoprevention in cancer risk reduction?
What lifestyle factors help in cancer risk reduction?
What is the significance of targeted therapy in cancer treatment?
Why is staging important in cancer treatment?
What are the critical aspects of familial syndromes in cancer management?
What is the source of IL-1 and its key roles?
What is the role of IL-2 in immunity?
What does IL-3 do in the immune system?
What is the role of IL-4 in the immune response?
What is the effect of IL-5?
What does IL-6 do?
What is the function of IL-7?
What is the role of IL-10 in the immune system?
What does IL-12 promote?
What is the significance of IL-13?
What role does IL-17 play in immunity?
What does IL-18 enhance?
What is the role of IL-21?
What condition is associated with CN III?
What is the function of CN VII (Facial)?
What condition is associated with CN VII?
Bell's palsy (peripheral) vs. central lesion (spares forehead)
What condition is associated with CN VIII?
Vertigo, nystagmus, hearing loss (e.g., acoustic neuroma)
What is the function of CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)?
What findings are associated with CN II lesions?
Visual field defects (e.g., bitemporal hemianopsia)
What is the clinical relevance of Olfactory Sensitivity Test?
What does reduced visual acuity suggest in CN II testing?
What does a visual fields test indicate in CN II testing?
What does the pupillary reflex test for in CN III, IV, VI testing?
What does impaired accommodation indicate in CN III dysfunction?
What does facial sensation testing assess in CN V?
What does the corneal reflex test for in CN V?
What does facial movement testing assess in CN VII?
What is observed during palate elevation?
Uvula movement when patient says 'ah'; deviation indicates CN X lesion.
How is shoulder shrug tested?
Patient shrugs shoulders against resistance; weakness indicates trapezius dysfunction.
What does weakness in head turn indicate?
SCM (sternocleidomastoid) involvement on the opposite side.
What does Vestibular Schwannoma affect?
CN VIII (and often CN VII); leads to sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, facial weakness.
What does Guillain-Barré Syndrome affect?
Multiple cranial nerves (e.g., CN VII, IX); causes facial paralysis, dysphagia, absent reflexes.
What does fundoscopy inspect for?
Optic disc swelling or atrophy; indicates papilledema in raised intracranial pressure.
What does EOM Testing assess?
Extraocular movements; CN IV for vertical diplopia, CN VI for horizontal diplopia.
What does the pupillary reflex check?
Direct/consensual response to light; CN III damage causes fixed, dilated pupil.
What is assessed in facial sensation testing (CN V)?
Light touch and pain in V1, V2, V3 distributions.
What does the corneal reflex test?
Touch cornea lightly and observe blink; absent in CN V1 or CN VII lesions.
What is assessed during facial movements (CN VII)?
Smile, raise eyebrows, close eyes; peripheral lesions affect entire face.
What does taste testing assess in CN VII?
Taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue; loss indicates CN VII dysfunction.
What are the findings in Lateral Medullary Syndrome?
Dysphagia, hoarseness, loss of gag reflex, pain/temp loss.
What are the findings in Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Ophthalmoplegia, facial numbness, proptosis, Horner’s syndrome.
What are the findings in Jugular Foramen Syndrome?
Dysphonia, dysphagia, absent gag reflex, shoulder droop.
What is a common cause of Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
Which nerves are involved in Cavernous Sinus Syndrome?
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