Which of the following is NOT a factor for osteoporosis?
Vitamin D deficient
Elderly
Women (white)
Calcium
Which of the following is NOT a factor for osteoporosis?
Vitamin D deficient
Elderly
Women (white)
Calcium
What percentage of fractures can be visualized on a bone scan by 24 hours?
50%
70%
80%
90%
What percentage of fractures can be visualized on a bone scan by 24 hours?
50%
70%
80%
90%
What helps to clear the injected material from your soft tissue during a bone scan?
Smoking
Drinking fluids
Eating
Resting
What helps to clear the injected material from your soft tissue during a bone scan?
Smoking
Drinking fluids
Eating
Resting
How are 99m Tc-bound phosphates taken to bones?
By blood
By nerves
By muscle contraction
By lymphatic system
How are 99m Tc-bound phosphates taken to bones?
By blood
By nerves
By muscle contraction
By lymphatic system
What types of slices are obtained from a SPECT acquisition?
Sagittal, coronal, and axial
Radial, static, and dynamic
Transverse, sagittal, and coronal
Horizontal, vertical, and axial
What types of slices are obtained from a SPECT acquisition?
Sagittal, coronal, and axial
Radial, static, and dynamic
Transverse, sagittal, and coronal
Horizontal, vertical, and axial
When evaluating a prosthesis with a bone scan, what can be assessed?
Placement of the prosthesis
Blood flow
Infection around the prosthesis
Bone density
Muscle strength
When evaluating a prosthesis with a bone scan, what can be assessed?
Placement of the prosthesis
Blood flow
Infection around the prosthesis
Bone density
Muscle strength
What is the characteristic of Paget's disease?
Bone fragility
Osteomyelitis
Decreased vascularity
Accelerated remodeling process
What is the characteristic of Paget's disease?
Bone fragility
Osteomyelitis
Decreased vascularity
Accelerated remodeling process
How many mCi of Tc-99m diphosphonates should be given for an adult 3 phase limited bone scan?
50
10
20
30
How many mCi of Tc-99m diphosphonates should be given for an adult 3 phase limited bone scan?
50
10
20
30
How do Mets appear on a bone scan?
Widespread diffusion
Decreased uptake
Uniform intensity
A focal hot spot
How do Mets appear on a bone scan?
Widespread diffusion
Decreased uptake
Uniform intensity
A focal hot spot
What will radiation therapy defects show as?
Focal enhancement
Homogeneous distribution
Decreased accumulation of the RP
Increased uptake
What will radiation therapy defects show as?
Focal enhancement
Homogeneous distribution
Decreased accumulation of the RP
Increased uptake
Metabolic disorders like hyperthyroidism appear as what on a bone scan?
Normal scan
Hot spot
Super scan
Cold spot
Metabolic disorders like hyperthyroidism appear as what on a bone scan?
Normal scan
Hot spot
Super scan
Cold spot
Why was Sr-85 limited to a dose of about 100 uCi?
High activity
Short decay time
Low half-life
Long effective half life
Why was Sr-85 limited to a dose of about 100 uCi?
High activity
Short decay time
Low half-life
Long effective half life
Where does Tc-99m Polyphosphate show increased localization?
Brain
Lungs
Liver
Kidneys
Where does Tc-99m Polyphosphate show increased localization?
Brain
Lungs
Liver
Kidneys
When is the blood pool image of a 3 phase bone scan taken?
90 sec
60 sec post injection
120 sec
30 sec
When is the blood pool image of a 3 phase bone scan taken?
90 sec
60 sec post injection
120 sec
30 sec
What is the body's critical organ for radiation dose in skeletal scintigraphy?
Heart
Liver
Brain
Bladder
What is the body's critical organ for radiation dose in skeletal scintigraphy?
Heart
Liver
Brain
Bladder
What should the flow of a 3 phase bone scan be?
2-5 photons/sec
1-2 photons/sec
5-10 photons/sec
10-15 photons/sec
What should the flow of a 3 phase bone scan be?
2-5 photons/sec
1-2 photons/sec
5-10 photons/sec
10-15 photons/sec
What is the purpose of a 2-4 hour delay after the injection of the RP in a bone scan?
Increased washout of the RP from soft tissue
Improved image quality
Increased retention
Reduced radiation exposure
What is the purpose of a 2-4 hour delay after the injection of the RP in a bone scan?
Increased washout of the RP from soft tissue
Improved image quality
Increased retention
Reduced radiation exposure
What diagnosis is indicated for a 15 yo male with upper right femur pain and mass?
Primary bone tumor
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
Fracture
What diagnosis is indicated for a 15 yo male with upper right femur pain and mass?
Primary bone tumor
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
Fracture
Which condition causes inflammation of the bone?
Fibromyalgia
Osteomyelitis
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
Which condition causes inflammation of the bone?
Fibromyalgia
Osteomyelitis
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
Accumulation of the RP is based on what?
Vascularity
Bone density
Mineral content
Cellularity
Accumulation of the RP is based on what?
Vascularity
Bone density
Mineral content
Cellularity
Where do blood vessels perforate into bones?
Nutrient foramen
Medullary cavity
Haversian canal
Volkman's canal
Where do blood vessels perforate into bones?
Nutrient foramen
Medullary cavity
Haversian canal
Volkman's canal
Where is the most appropriate injection site for this scan?
Right wrist
Back
Left thigh
Left antecubital
Where is the most appropriate injection site for this scan?
Right wrist
Back
Left thigh
Left antecubital
Which bone imaging RP has the fastest blood clearance?
Thallium-201
Tc-99m HDP
Iodine-123
Tc-99m MDP
Which bone imaging RP has the fastest blood clearance?
Thallium-201
Tc-99m HDP
Iodine-123
Tc-99m MDP
Which of the following is not an indication for a bone scan?
Diagnosis of reflex sympathetic dystrophy
Evaluation of Paget's disease
Detection of stress fractures
R/O a PE in the bone
Which of the following is not an indication for a bone scan?
Diagnosis of reflex sympathetic dystrophy
Evaluation of Paget's disease
Detection of stress fractures
R/O a PE in the bone
Which minerals are needed for bone remodeling?
Fe, Zn, and Cu
Ca, Mg, and B
K, Na, and Cl
P, S, and I
Which minerals are needed for bone remodeling?
Fe, Zn, and Cu
Ca, Mg, and B
K, Na, and Cl
P, S, and I
Which RP is not used for skeletal imaging?
Thallium-201
99mTC-DTPA
Tc-99m MDP
Tc-99m HDP
Which RP is not used for skeletal imaging?
Thallium-201
99mTC-DTPA
Tc-99m MDP
Tc-99m HDP
Which vitamin is used primarily during bone development?
Calcium
Vit C
Vit A
Vit D
Which vitamin is used primarily during bone development?
Calcium
Vit C
Vit A
Vit D
Why are post-menopausal women more likely to get osteoporosis?
Frequent exercise
Lack of estrogen
High calcium intake
Excessive vitamin D
Why are post-menopausal women more likely to get osteoporosis?
Frequent exercise
Lack of estrogen
High calcium intake
Excessive vitamin D
Young children have very hot _____ plates reflecting the high metabolic rate.
Medullary
Epiphyseal
Cortical
Periosteal
Young children have very hot _____ plates reflecting the high metabolic rate.
Medullary
Epiphyseal
Cortical
Periosteal
Bones are never metabolically at rest. True or False?
True
False
Bones are never metabolically at rest. True or False?
True
False
Breast visualization is normal in young females. True or False?
False
True
Breast visualization is normal in young females. True or False?
False
True
METS are easy to distinguish because they show up with a discernable pattern. True or False?
True
False
METS are easy to distinguish because they show up with a discernable pattern. True or False?
True
False
In acute osteomyelitis, blood flow is increased in the arterial phase. True or False?
True
False
In acute osteomyelitis, blood flow is increased in the arterial phase. True or False?
True
False
Is bone labeling increased significantly after 30 minutes?
False
True
Is bone labeling increased significantly after 30 minutes?
False
True
What is palliative therapy used for?
Increasing bone density
Surgical correction
Pain from METS
Preventing metastasis
What is palliative therapy used for?
Increasing bone density
Surgical correction
Pain from METS
Preventing metastasis
Which radionuclides can be used for therapy of bone METS?
Cobalt-60
153 Sm- Ethlendiaminetetramethylene, 89-SR, and 186 hydroxyethylen
131 Iodine
Radium-223
Which radionuclides can be used for therapy of bone METS?
Cobalt-60
153 Sm- Ethlendiaminetetramethylene, 89-SR, and 186 hydroxyethylen
131 Iodine
Radium-223
What is the term for increased uptake following chemotherapy due to bone healing?
Decrement effect
Flare phenomenon
Cortical blunting
Stability index
What is the term for increased uptake following chemotherapy due to bone healing?
Decrement effect
Flare phenomenon
Cortical blunting
Stability index
Which of the following is least likely to cause an artifact on a bone scan?
Metal implants
Obesity
Colostomy bag
Recent surgery
Which of the following is least likely to cause an artifact on a bone scan?
Metal implants
Obesity
Colostomy bag
Recent surgery
What is the appearance of newly infarcted bone on a bone scan?
Cold lesion
Hot lesion
Normal uptake
Variable uptake
What is the appearance of newly infarcted bone on a bone scan?
Cold lesion
Hot lesion
Normal uptake
Variable uptake
Do metastases usually affect the axial skeleton before the appendicular skeleton?
True
False
Do metastases usually affect the axial skeleton before the appendicular skeleton?
True
False
Which group shows the highest rate of primary bone tumors?
Elderly
Teenagers
Children
Adults
Which group shows the highest rate of primary bone tumors?
Elderly
Teenagers
Children
Adults
What occurs in the acute phase of avascular necrosis of bone?
Increased activity
Hypoperfusion on blood flow phase and hypoactivity on delayed skeletal phase
Normal perfusion
Hyperperfusion
What occurs in the acute phase of avascular necrosis of bone?
Increased activity
Hypoperfusion on blood flow phase and hypoactivity on delayed skeletal phase
Normal perfusion
Hyperperfusion
Which cancer is least likely to metastasize to bone?
Prostate
Lung
Ovary
Breast
Which cancer is least likely to metastasize to bone?
Prostate
Lung
Ovary
Breast
What factors can reduce the quality of a bone scan?
Congestive heart failure, renal insufficiency, and obesity
Age and sex
Smoking and diet
Exercise history
What factors can reduce the quality of a bone scan?
Congestive heart failure, renal insufficiency, and obesity
Age and sex
Smoking and diet
Exercise history
How many lobes does each lung have?
Right has 3, Left has 2
Right has 3, Left has 1
Right has 2, Left has 3
Right has 4, Left has 2
How many lobes does each lung have?
Right has 3, Left has 2
Right has 3, Left has 1
Right has 2, Left has 3
Right has 4, Left has 2
What view does a normal lung scan show if viewed from the front?
Medial due to lung structure
Posterior due to diaphragm
Lateral due to oblique fissures
Anterior due to cardiac notch
What view does a normal lung scan show if viewed from the front?
Medial due to lung structure
Posterior due to diaphragm
Lateral due to oblique fissures
Anterior due to cardiac notch
In a 99mTc-MAA perfusion lung scan, how many particles should you use?
100,000-200,000 particles at 5-10 um
300,000-500,000 particles at 15-25 um
200,000-400,000 particles at 10-30 um
400,000-600,000 particles at 20-30 um
In a 99mTc-MAA perfusion lung scan, how many particles should you use?
100,000-200,000 particles at 5-10 um
300,000-500,000 particles at 15-25 um
200,000-400,000 particles at 10-30 um
400,000-600,000 particles at 20-30 um
Which of the following radionuclides can be used in a ventilation lung scan?
Xe-133, Xe-127, 99mTc-DTPA
I-131, Tc-99m, Kr-78
Xe-135, Ga-67, I-123
Co-60, Ge-68, In-111
Which of the following radionuclides can be used in a ventilation lung scan?
Xe-133, Xe-127, 99mTc-DTPA
I-131, Tc-99m, Kr-78
Xe-135, Ga-67, I-123
Co-60, Ge-68, In-111
What are three risk factors for pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Diabetes, hypertension, travel history
Smoking, BC, history of DVT
High cholesterol, family history, inactivity
Obesity, age over 60, recent surgery
What are three risk factors for pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Diabetes, hypertension, travel history
Smoking, BC, history of DVT
High cholesterol, family history, inactivity
Obesity, age over 60, recent surgery
How long should you wait after injecting TC-99m MAA before scanning?
1 hour
Half an hour
45 minutes
15 minutes
How long should you wait after injecting TC-99m MAA before scanning?
1 hour
Half an hour
45 minutes
15 minutes
What is the physical half-life of Xe-133?
5 days
10 days
3 days
7 days
What is the physical half-life of Xe-133?
5 days
10 days
3 days
7 days
What is one main function of the lungs?
Filter waste from the blood
Regulate blood sugar
Store carbon dioxide
Deliver oxygen to the blood
What is one main function of the lungs?
Filter waste from the blood
Regulate blood sugar
Store carbon dioxide
Deliver oxygen to the blood
What is one advantage of using 133-Xe gas in a vent lung scan?
Longer scan time
Increased radiation
More expensive
Better for COPD
What is one advantage of using 133-Xe gas in a vent lung scan?
Longer scan time
Increased radiation
More expensive
Better for COPD
What activity should be loaded into the nebulizer for a vent lung scan?
30 mCi
45 mCi
20 mCi
15 mCi
What activity should be loaded into the nebulizer for a vent lung scan?
30 mCi
45 mCi
20 mCi
15 mCi
Why is the right lung thicker and shorter than the left?
Due to the liver underneath
Due to a larger heart
More blood flow
Less air capacity
Why is the right lung thicker and shorter than the left?
Due to the liver underneath
Due to a larger heart
More blood flow
Less air capacity
What does Atelectasis refer to?
Collapsed lung
Blood in the pleural cavity
Air in the pleural cavity
Infection in lung tissue
What does Atelectasis refer to?
Collapsed lung
Blood in the pleural cavity
Air in the pleural cavity
Infection in lung tissue
What does Hemothorax mean?
Inflammation of lung lining
Pleural cavity fills with blood
Fluid in lung tissue
Air in the pleural cavity
What does Hemothorax mean?
Inflammation of lung lining
Pleural cavity fills with blood
Fluid in lung tissue
Air in the pleural cavity
What is Pleurisy associated with?
Coughing up blood
High fever
Back and chest pain from friction
Shortness of breath
What is Pleurisy associated with?
Coughing up blood
High fever
Back and chest pain from friction
Shortness of breath
What kind of bacteria causes Tuberculosis?
Non-infectious disease
Viral infection
Fungal infection
Bacteria that destroys lung tissue
What kind of bacteria causes Tuberculosis?
Non-infectious disease
Viral infection
Fungal infection
Bacteria that destroys lung tissue
What is a PE in medical terms?
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Blood clot in pulmonary artery
What is a PE in medical terms?
Pulmonary embolism
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Blood clot in pulmonary artery
What does Pneumothorax refer to?
Fluid in lungs
Air in the pleural cavity
Blockage in airway
Inflammation of lung tissue
What does Pneumothorax refer to?
Fluid in lungs
Air in the pleural cavity
Blockage in airway
Inflammation of lung tissue
What condition involves disintegration of alveolar walls?
Interstitial lung disease
Bronchitis
Emphysema
Asthma
What condition involves disintegration of alveolar walls?
Interstitial lung disease
Bronchitis
Emphysema
Asthma
What does Hilus refer to in lung anatomy?
Portion allowing blood vessels to enter and exit
Pleural lining
Air sacs in lungs
Bronchial tubes
What does Hilus refer to in lung anatomy?
Portion allowing blood vessels to enter and exit
Pleural lining
Air sacs in lungs
Bronchial tubes
What does Hypoxia mean?
High level of carbon dioxide
Dehydration
Low level of oxygen in the body
Normal oxygen levels
What does Hypoxia mean?
High level of carbon dioxide
Dehydration
Low level of oxygen in the body
Normal oxygen levels
What does Bronchography examine?
Bronchial tree
Lung tissue
Blood vessels
Pleural membranes
What does Bronchography examine?
Bronchial tree
Lung tissue
Blood vessels
Pleural membranes
What could cause a cold defect in the right base on a lung scan?
Inhaled irritants
Infection
Tuberculosis
Poor blood flow
What could cause a cold defect in the right base on a lung scan?
Inhaled irritants
Infection
Tuberculosis
Poor blood flow
How many capillaries generally become blocked during a perfusion lung scan using 99mTc MAA?
1 in 500
More than 1 in 1000
Less than 1 in 100
Fewer than 1 in 1000 and less than 0.1%
How many capillaries generally become blocked during a perfusion lung scan using 99mTc MAA?
1 in 500
More than 1 in 1000
Less than 1 in 100
Fewer than 1 in 1000 and less than 0.1%
What is the air pressure in the lungs before inspiration?
1000 mmHg
750 mmHg
Atmospheric pressure and 760 mmHg
500 mmHg
What is the air pressure in the lungs before inspiration?
1000 mmHg
750 mmHg
Atmospheric pressure and 760 mmHg
500 mmHg
By what process do respiratory gases get exchanged in the lungs?
Diffusion
Active transport
Osmosis
Filtration
By what process do respiratory gases get exchanged in the lungs?
Diffusion
Active transport
Osmosis
Filtration
How does 99mTc MAA localize in the lungs?
By ion exchange
By simple diffusion
Through active transport
It does not localize by active transport, simple diffusion, filtration, or ion exchange
How does 99mTc MAA localize in the lungs?
By ion exchange
By simple diffusion
Through active transport
It does not localize by active transport, simple diffusion, filtration, or ion exchange
How many mCi of 99mTc MAA are injected for a perfusion lung scan?
1
10
5
15
How many mCi of 99mTc MAA are injected for a perfusion lung scan?
1
10
5
15
If only one scan can be performed, which lung scan should be done to rule out a PE?
Perfusion
CT scan
MRI scan
Ventilation
If only one scan can be performed, which lung scan should be done to rule out a PE?
Perfusion
CT scan
MRI scan
Ventilation
Does perfusion and ventilation lung imaging remove the need for a chest X-ray?
Only sometimes
Depends on the case
False
True
Does perfusion and ventilation lung imaging remove the need for a chest X-ray?
Only sometimes
Depends on the case
False
True
What is the substance dispensed into a patient using the shown equipment?
Air
99mTc MAA
99mTc-DTPA
Radioactive iodine
What is the substance dispensed into a patient using the shown equipment?
Air
99mTc MAA
99mTc-DTPA
Radioactive iodine
What type of scan is shown in the image?
Ventilation
Perfusion
Chest X-ray
CT scan
What type of scan is shown in the image?
Ventilation
Perfusion
Chest X-ray
CT scan
In the posterior view, which lung is affected by the large PE?
Left
None
Both
Right
In the posterior view, which lung is affected by the large PE?
Left
None
Both
Right
What is the most common treatment for a pulmonary embolism?
Warfarin
Oxygen therapy
Aspirin
Heparin solution treatment
What is the most common treatment for a pulmonary embolism?
Warfarin
Oxygen therapy
Aspirin
Heparin solution treatment
In how many steps can a lung quantification study be completed?
3-4 steps
5-6 steps
2-3 steps
1-2 steps
In how many steps can a lung quantification study be completed?
3-4 steps
5-6 steps
2-3 steps
1-2 steps
Where are oxygen and CO2 exchanged in the lungs?
Bronchi
Lungs
Trachea
Alveoli
Where are oxygen and CO2 exchanged in the lungs?
Bronchi
Lungs
Trachea
Alveoli
Which of the following is not caused by smoking?
Asthma
Lung cancer
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Which of the following is not caused by smoking?
Asthma
Lung cancer
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema
Which of the following is not a symptom of a pulmonary embolism?
Shortness of breath
Pulmonary infarction
Cough
Chest pain
Which of the following is not a symptom of a pulmonary embolism?
Shortness of breath
Pulmonary infarction
Cough
Chest pain
What should not be done when injecting Tc-99m MAA for a lung scan?
You should draw blood back into the syringe and you should inject with the patient standing
Monitor patient vitals
Inject slowly
Use a sterile syringe
What should not be done when injecting Tc-99m MAA for a lung scan?
You should draw blood back into the syringe and you should inject with the patient standing
Monitor patient vitals
Inject slowly
Use a sterile syringe
Which phase of a Xe-133 vent lung scan requires the patient to rebreath Xe-133?
Initial
Final
Clearance
Equilibrium
Which phase of a Xe-133 vent lung scan requires the patient to rebreath Xe-133?
Initial
Final
Clearance
Equilibrium
What are the 3 diagnostic categories for a PE with a V/Q scan?
Normal, abnormal, critical
Minor, moderate, severe
Beginner, intermediate, expert
Low, intermediate, and high
What are the 3 diagnostic categories for a PE with a V/Q scan?
Normal, abnormal, critical
Minor, moderate, severe
Beginner, intermediate, expert
Low, intermediate, and high
How can a perfusion scan be used to manage patients with lung cancer who are candidates for surgical resection?
Checking blood pressure
Monitoring heart rate
Quantitation of the scan
Assessing lung function
How can a perfusion scan be used to manage patients with lung cancer who are candidates for surgical resection?
Checking blood pressure
Monitoring heart rate
Quantitation of the scan
Assessing lung function
What process removes particles used for perfusion imaging by the lung?
Osmosis
Filtration
Phagocytosis
Diffusion
What process removes particles used for perfusion imaging by the lung?
Osmosis
Filtration
Phagocytosis
Diffusion
Which view is the most important to take in a perfusion lung scan?
Oblique
Anterior
Post
Lateral
Which view is the most important to take in a perfusion lung scan?
Oblique
Anterior
Post
Lateral
Which view represents a normal lung scan?
Anterior
Right lateral
Left lateral
Posterior
Which view represents a normal lung scan?
Anterior
Right lateral
Left lateral
Posterior
Will a normal lung scan show a matched defect?
True
False
Will a normal lung scan show a matched defect?
True
False
What is the current gold standard test for imaging the lung?
CT angiography
MRI
Ultrasound
X-ray
What is the current gold standard test for imaging the lung?
CT angiography
MRI
Ultrasound
X-ray
Is oxygen optional to hook up to a nebulizer for inhaling TC99m DTPA?
False
True
Is oxygen optional to hook up to a nebulizer for inhaling TC99m DTPA?
False
True
Can cold spots appear in lung images when blood clots form in the syringe used to inject 99mTC-MAA?
False
True
Can cold spots appear in lung images when blood clots form in the syringe used to inject 99mTC-MAA?
False
True
Are there 2 secondary bronchi in the inferior lobe of the left lung?
False
True
Are there 2 secondary bronchi in the inferior lobe of the left lung?
False
True
How long is the biological half-life of Xe-133 clearing from the lungs?
30 seconds
1 minute
5 minutes
10 seconds
How long is the biological half-life of Xe-133 clearing from the lungs?
30 seconds
1 minute
5 minutes
10 seconds
How quickly can pulmonary emboli resolve?
1 month
1 day
1 week
3 days
How quickly can pulmonary emboli resolve?
1 month
1 day
1 week
3 days
What connects the thyroid lobes?
Base
Isthmus
Vein
Apex
What connects the thyroid lobes?
Base
Isthmus
Vein
Apex
What does a whole body I-131 study determine?
Heart health
METS for thyroid cancer
Bone density
Lung function
What does a whole body I-131 study determine?
Heart health
METS for thyroid cancer
Bone density
Lung function
Which radiopharmaceutical allows you to scan the thyroid sooner?
Ga-67
I-131
TC-99m
I-123
Which radiopharmaceutical allows you to scan the thyroid sooner?
Ga-67
I-131
TC-99m
I-123
Why can Tc99m be used for a thyroid scan but not an uptake?
It doesn't bind to receptors
It only identifies cancer
It is too radioactive
It gets trapped but not organified
Why can Tc99m be used for a thyroid scan but not an uptake?
It doesn't bind to receptors
It only identifies cancer
It is too radioactive
It gets trapped but not organified
What condition is characterized by hypersecretion of HGH in adulthood?
Cushing's syndrome
Acromegaly
Diabetes Mellitus
Giantism
What condition is characterized by hypersecretion of HGH in adulthood?
Cushing's syndrome
Acromegaly
Diabetes Mellitus
Giantism
What causes Cretinism?
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones during fetal life or infancy
Hypersecretion of HGH
Excessive glucose in the blood
Autoimmune thyroid disease
What causes Cretinism?
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones during fetal life or infancy
Hypersecretion of HGH
Excessive glucose in the blood
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Which disease involves the production of an antibody that mimics TSH?
Graves disease
Cushing's syndrome
Diabetes Mellitus
Acromegaly
Which disease involves the production of an antibody that mimics TSH?
Graves disease
Cushing's syndrome
Diabetes Mellitus
Acromegaly
What does Diabetes Mellitus result in?
Increase in cortisol
Low insulin levels
Elevation of glucose in the blood
High thyroid hormones
What does Diabetes Mellitus result in?
Increase in cortisol
Low insulin levels
Elevation of glucose in the blood
High thyroid hormones
What condition results from hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone?
Addison's disease
Goiter
Hashimoto's disease
Pituitary dwarfism
What condition results from hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone?
Addison's disease
Goiter
Hashimoto's disease
Pituitary dwarfism
What is the general term for an enlarged thyroid gland?
Pituitary dwarfism
Grave's disease
Thyroiditis
Goiter
What is the general term for an enlarged thyroid gland?
Pituitary dwarfism
Grave's disease
Thyroiditis
Goiter
What causes pituitary dwarfism?
Hypersecretion of hGH
Hyposecretion of hGH during childhood
Growth hormone resistance
Thyroid dysfunction
What causes pituitary dwarfism?
Hypersecretion of hGH
Hyposecretion of hGH during childhood
Growth hormone resistance
Thyroid dysfunction
What happens in Hashimoto's disease?
Excess thyroid hormone production
Antibodies bind to TSH receptors, causing thyroid growth
Complete thyroid shutdown
Overactive adrenal response
What happens in Hashimoto's disease?
Excess thyroid hormone production
Antibodies bind to TSH receptors, causing thyroid growth
Complete thyroid shutdown
Overactive adrenal response
What is the half-life of I-131?
12 days
24 hours
8 days
3 days
What is the half-life of I-131?
12 days
24 hours
8 days
3 days
What can a bird's eye view in a thyroid scan not show?
Thyroid nodules
Thyroid size
Bladder
Parathyroid glands
What can a bird's eye view in a thyroid scan not show?
Thyroid nodules
Thyroid size
Bladder
Parathyroid glands
What is a disadvantage of using I-123 over 99mTC in thyroid scans?
Lower accuracy
More expensive and less available
Lower radiation exposure
Shorter half-life
What is a disadvantage of using I-123 over 99mTC in thyroid scans?
Lower accuracy
More expensive and less available
Lower radiation exposure
Shorter half-life
What is a normal 24-hour uptake percentage for the thyroid?
40%
30%
10%
25%
What is a normal 24-hour uptake percentage for the thyroid?
40%
30%
10%
25%
How much I-131 is typically given for a 24-hour thyroid uptake?
5 uCi
15 uCi
20 uCi
10 uCi
How much I-131 is typically given for a 24-hour thyroid uptake?
5 uCi
15 uCi
20 uCi
10 uCi
What would the 24-hour uptake be for a patient diagnosed with Grave's disease?
45%
20%
25%
40%
What would the 24-hour uptake be for a patient diagnosed with Grave's disease?
45%
20%
25%
40%
What is a common indication for doing a thyroid uptake measurement?
Grave's disease
Cushing's syndrome
Pituitary dwarfism
Addison's disease
What is a common indication for doing a thyroid uptake measurement?
Grave's disease
Cushing's syndrome
Pituitary dwarfism
Addison's disease
What is the purpose of the Co-57 marker in thyroid imaging?
Isolation
Treatment
Localization
Quantification
What is the purpose of the Co-57 marker in thyroid imaging?
Isolation
Treatment
Localization
Quantification
Where does a normal thyroid originate?
Above the heart
At the base of the tongue
Behind the sternum
In the chest
Where does a normal thyroid originate?
Above the heart
At the base of the tongue
Behind the sternum
In the chest
Which cells of the thyroid produce thyroid hormones?
Follicular
Parafollicular
C-cells
Clear
Which cells of the thyroid produce thyroid hormones?
Follicular
Parafollicular
C-cells
Clear
Which major hormone does the pituitary gland secrete to stimulate T3 and T4 synthesis?
ACTH
FSH
LH
TSH
Which major hormone does the pituitary gland secrete to stimulate T3 and T4 synthesis?
ACTH
FSH
LH
TSH
Which patient prep is not necessary for a thyroid scan with I-123?
(options not provided in text)
Avoiding iodine-rich foods
Discontinuing medications
Fasting for 24 hours
Which patient prep is not necessary for a thyroid scan with I-123?
(options not provided in text)
Avoiding iodine-rich foods
Discontinuing medications
Fasting for 24 hours
Which of the following is not true concerning a thyroid uptake procedure using I-123?
A cold nodule has a lesser chance of cancer
Standard counts must always be obtained
The pt's leg should hang straight down when taking pt's bkg
The patient must refrain from caffeine for 24 hours
Which of the following is not true concerning a thyroid uptake procedure using I-123?
A cold nodule has a lesser chance of cancer
Standard counts must always be obtained
The pt's leg should hang straight down when taking pt's bkg
The patient must refrain from caffeine for 24 hours
What is the normal range for a 6-hour thyroid uptake for I-131?
2%
25%
6-18%
10%
What is the normal range for a 6-hour thyroid uptake for I-131?
2%
25%
6-18%
10%
What is a functioning thyroid tissue in the thyroglossal duct remnant called?
Isthmus
Pyramidal lobe
Follicular unit
Thyroid gland
What is a functioning thyroid tissue in the thyroglossal duct remnant called?
Isthmus
Pyramidal lobe
Follicular unit
Thyroid gland
How much 99mTc Napertechnetate is administered orally for a thyroid scan?
5 mCi
15 mCi
10 mCi
20 mCi
How much 99mTc Napertechnetate is administered orally for a thyroid scan?
5 mCi
15 mCi
10 mCi
20 mCi
Is it true that a cold thyroid nodule has a greater chance of being cancerous than a hot nodule?
True
False
Depends on the size
Not applicable
Is it true that a cold thyroid nodule has a greater chance of being cancerous than a hot nodule?
True
False
Depends on the size
Not applicable
Does the procedure for a 24-hour thyroid uptake differ from a 6-hour uptake?
It varies based on medication
True
False
They are completely different
Does the procedure for a 24-hour thyroid uptake differ from a 6-hour uptake?
It varies based on medication
True
False
They are completely different
What solution blocks the thyroid from I-131?
Sodium iodide
Calcium solution
Lugol's solution
Potassium iodide
What solution blocks the thyroid from I-131?
Sodium iodide
Calcium solution
Lugol's solution
Potassium iodide
What radiopharmaceutical is used for adrenal medulla imaging?
Tc-99m
I-131 Meta
Lu-177
Ga-68
What radiopharmaceutical is used for adrenal medulla imaging?
Tc-99m
I-131 Meta
Lu-177
Ga-68
Where is a child's thyroid located?
Below the jaw
Neck
Base of the tongue
Chest
Where is a child's thyroid located?
Below the jaw
Neck
Base of the tongue
Chest
When should the first phase of imaging begin after a MIBI parathyroid study?
60 min
5-10 min
30-45 min
15-20 min
When should the first phase of imaging begin after a MIBI parathyroid study?
60 min
5-10 min
30-45 min
15-20 min
MIBG acts as an analog to what neurotransmitter?
Serotonin
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
MIBG acts as an analog to what neurotransmitter?
Serotonin
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Which is an anti-thyroid drug that may need to be discontinued for a thyroid uptake test?
Levothyroxine
Propylthiouracil
Liothyronine
Methimazole
Which is an anti-thyroid drug that may need to be discontinued for a thyroid uptake test?
Levothyroxine
Propylthiouracil
Liothyronine
Methimazole
What is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?
Iron metabolism
The trapping and secretion of iodine
Calcium absorption
Vitamin D synthesis
What is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?
Iron metabolism
The trapping and secretion of iodine
Calcium absorption
Vitamin D synthesis
What are patients receiving a thyroid ablation dose of 75mCi of I-131 instructed to do?
Immediately discharged
Take a follow-up dose
Stay in the hospital indefinitely
Sent home with special instructions
What are patients receiving a thyroid ablation dose of 75mCi of I-131 instructed to do?
Immediately discharged
Take a follow-up dose
Stay in the hospital indefinitely
Sent home with special instructions
Which imaging techniques can be used for thyroid imaging?
X-ray or ultrasound
CT or MRI
Pinhole or parallel
Fluoroscopy only
Which imaging techniques can be used for thyroid imaging?
X-ray or ultrasound
CT or MRI
Pinhole or parallel
Fluoroscopy only
What effect does collecting thyroid counts 5 cm from the neck have?
The value remains the same
The uptake value will decrease
The uptake value will falsely increase
It shows no influence
What effect does collecting thyroid counts 5 cm from the neck have?
The value remains the same
The uptake value will decrease
The uptake value will falsely increase
It shows no influence
Which glands in the neck can be visualized with thyroid imaging?
Salivary glands
Thymus
Adrenal glands
Pancreas
Which glands in the neck can be visualized with thyroid imaging?
Salivary glands
Thymus
Adrenal glands
Pancreas
What does low circulating thyroid hormone trigger in the pituitary?
No change occurs
To increase pituitary synthesis of TSH
To increase T3 synthesis
To decrease TSH production
What does low circulating thyroid hormone trigger in the pituitary?
No change occurs
To increase pituitary synthesis of TSH
To increase T3 synthesis
To decrease TSH production
What is thyrтotropin also known as?
T4
TSH
T3
TRH
What is thyrтotropin also known as?
T4
TSH
T3
TRH
What patient prep is needed for a SPECT brain scan?
Medication withholding necessary
CT scan prior is mandatory
Water fasting required
There is no patient prep for a SPECT brain scan
What patient prep is needed for a SPECT brain scan?
Medication withholding necessary
CT scan prior is mandatory
Water fasting required
There is no patient prep for a SPECT brain scan
What view does a SPECT brain scan typically represent?
Coronal
Sagittal
Horizontal
Transverse
What view does a SPECT brain scan typically represent?
Coronal
Sagittal
Horizontal
Transverse
What type of injection is required for a planar brain scan?
Continuous infusion
Bolus injection
Subcutaneous injection
Intramuscular injection
What type of injection is required for a planar brain scan?
Continuous infusion
Bolus injection
Subcutaneous injection
Intramuscular injection
What radiopharmaceutical is used in a cisternogram?
500 uCi of In-111 DTPA
200 uCi of Ga-67
1000 uCi of Tc-99m
750 uCi of I-123
What radiopharmaceutical is used in a cisternogram?
500 uCi of In-111 DTPA
200 uCi of Ga-67
1000 uCi of Tc-99m
750 uCi of I-123
What is the hot nose sign associated with in brain imaging?
Cerebellar dysfunction
Sinus blockage
Decreased brain activity
Increased flow in the external carotid circulation
What is the hot nose sign associated with in brain imaging?
Cerebellar dysfunction
Sinus blockage
Decreased brain activity
Increased flow in the external carotid circulation
What happens to perfusion and metabolism in seizure foci during the ictal and interictal phases?
Increase and decrease
Remain constant
Increase and remain constant
Decrease and increase
What happens to perfusion and metabolism in seizure foci during the ictal and interictal phases?
Increase and decrease
Remain constant
Increase and remain constant
Decrease and increase
Which procedure can a NM tech not inject for?
SPECT
Bone scan
Cisternogram
PET
Which procedure can a NM tech not inject for?
SPECT
Bone scan
Cisternogram
PET
Which statement is not true of SPECT brain procedures?
Injection timing does not affect outcomes
Patient consent is not required
SPECT is not used for brain imaging
The tech should explain the procedure as the injection is performed
Which statement is not true of SPECT brain procedures?
Injection timing does not affect outcomes
Patient consent is not required
SPECT is not used for brain imaging
The tech should explain the procedure as the injection is performed
What is one function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Protects the brain from shocks and delivers glucose to the brain
Supports blood circulation
Provides oxygen to the brain
Acts as a neurotransmitter
What is one function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Protects the brain from shocks and delivers glucose to the brain
Supports blood circulation
Provides oxygen to the brain
Acts as a neurotransmitter
What is true about normal pressure hydrocephalus?
It is unrelated to pressure changes
It has no effect on brain structure
It causes enlargement of a brain ventricle
It causes decreased ventricular size
What is true about normal pressure hydrocephalus?
It is unrelated to pressure changes
It has no effect on brain structure
It causes enlargement of a brain ventricle
It causes decreased ventricular size
How long after injection does peak brain uptake of Tc-99m HMPAO occur?
2 min
5 min
10 min
30 sec
How long after injection does peak brain uptake of Tc-99m HMPAO occur?
2 min
5 min
10 min
30 sec
In a brain-dead patient, where can activity still be seen?
Jugular vein
Carotid artery
Pulmonary artery
Aorta
In a brain-dead patient, where can activity still be seen?
Jugular vein
Carotid artery
Pulmonary artery
Aorta
What type of radiopharmaceutical is 99mTc HMPAO?
Soluble in water
Neutral lipid-soluble and crosses the BBB
Only for bone imaging
Highly polar and does not cross the BBB
What type of radiopharmaceutical is 99mTc HMPAO?
Soluble in water
Neutral lipid-soluble and crosses the BBB
Only for bone imaging
Highly polar and does not cross the BBB
Should potassium perchlorate be given if Tc-99m HMPAO is used for brain flow scintigraphy?
Only in high doses
True
Only for elderly patients
False
Should potassium perchlorate be given if Tc-99m HMPAO is used for brain flow scintigraphy?
Only in high doses
True
Only for elderly patients
False
What view does the SPECT brain represent?
Frontal
Coronal
Sagittal
Transverse
What view does the SPECT brain represent?
Frontal
Coronal
Sagittal
Transverse
What does flow look like in a cerebrovascular accident?
Shows symmetry
No flow observed
Shows asymmetry
Shows increased flow
What does flow look like in a cerebrovascular accident?
Shows symmetry
No flow observed
Shows asymmetry
Shows increased flow
What is the best radiopharmaceutical for a SPECT brain study?
Co-57
F-18
99mTc- HMPAO
I-123
What is the best radiopharmaceutical for a SPECT brain study?
Co-57
F-18
99mTc- HMPAO
I-123
What does intrathecal injection for CSF imaging allow for?
Dose to enter the bloodstream
Dose to be injected into muscle
Dose to be administered orally
Dose to be administered into the subarachnoid space
What does intrathecal injection for CSF imaging allow for?
Dose to enter the bloodstream
Dose to be injected into muscle
Dose to be administered orally
Dose to be administered into the subarachnoid space
What should a tech prepare for an injection for a CSF shunt evaluation?
Injection into the shunt reservoir
Injection into the spinal cord
Injection into the brain
Injection into the lumbar region
What should a tech prepare for an injection for a CSF shunt evaluation?
Injection into the shunt reservoir
Injection into the spinal cord
Injection into the brain
Injection into the lumbar region
What are the four main parts of the brain?
Cerebellum, medulla, thalamus, and cortex
Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, and brain stem
Brain stem, cerebellum, hippocampus, and amygdala
What are the four main parts of the brain?
Cerebellum, medulla, thalamus, and cortex
Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, and brain stem
Brain stem, cerebellum, hippocampus, and amygdala
How can you tell if a patient has had a stroke or a TIA?
The amount of time that the blood supply is reduced to the brain
Presence of slurred speech
An increase in blood glucose levels
A decrease in blood pressure
How can you tell if a patient has had a stroke or a TIA?
The amount of time that the blood supply is reduced to the brain
Presence of slurred speech
An increase in blood glucose levels
A decrease in blood pressure
Why is a patient kept in a horizontal position for 2 hours after a cisternogram injection?
To prevent nausea
To minimize headache
To enhance drug absorption
To ensure proper imaging
Why is a patient kept in a horizontal position for 2 hours after a cisternogram injection?
To prevent nausea
To minimize headache
To enhance drug absorption
To ensure proper imaging
Where should activity be seen in a normal cisternogram by 4 hours?
In the basal cisterns
In the subarachnoid space
In the lateral ventricles
In the cerebral cortex
Where should activity be seen in a normal cisternogram by 4 hours?
In the basal cisterns
In the subarachnoid space
In the lateral ventricles
In the cerebral cortex
What indicates brain death in SPECT imaging?
Reduced glucose metabolism
A pattern of no intracranial blood supply to the brain
Increased blood flow
Normal blood supply in specific regions
What indicates brain death in SPECT imaging?
Reduced glucose metabolism
A pattern of no intracranial blood supply to the brain
Increased blood flow
Normal blood supply in specific regions
Cerebral glucose metabolism and blood flow during seizures are what?
Completely absent
Increased
Unchanged
Decreased
Cerebral glucose metabolism and blood flow during seizures are what?
Completely absent
Increased
Unchanged
Decreased
Which area is useful to detect infiltration of the osteo in the CSF procedure?
Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Lumbar spine
Lumbosacral junction
Which area is useful to detect infiltration of the osteo in the CSF procedure?
Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Lumbar spine
Lumbosacral junction
What is the typical scintigraphic pattern of Alzheimer's disease on cerebral perfusion imaging?
Increased perfusion in the frontal lobe
Decreased perfusion in temporoparietal areas
Uniform perfusion across all areas
No significant changes
What is the typical scintigraphic pattern of Alzheimer's disease on cerebral perfusion imaging?
Increased perfusion in the frontal lobe
Decreased perfusion in temporoparietal areas
Uniform perfusion across all areas
No significant changes
What is a reason for using 111In-DTPA in a Cisternogram?
It is easier to inject
It has a desirable physical half-life for the test
It produces clearer images
It's less expensive
What is a reason for using 111In-DTPA in a Cisternogram?
It is easier to inject
It has a desirable physical half-life for the test
It produces clearer images
It's less expensive
What imaging technique is recommended for a cerebral perfusion scan?
X-ray
MRI
BBB imaging
CT scan
What imaging technique is recommended for a cerebral perfusion scan?
X-ray
MRI
BBB imaging
CT scan
Which view does a SPECT brain scan represent?
Transverse
Axial
Sagittal
Coronal
Which view does a SPECT brain scan represent?
Transverse
Axial
Sagittal
Coronal
How long does it take for the radiotracer to clear from the basal cisterns?
24 hrs
48 hrs
12 hrs
72 hrs
How long does it take for the radiotracer to clear from the basal cisterns?
24 hrs
48 hrs
12 hrs
72 hrs
In Alzheimer's disease, where does a symmetric decrease in perfusion occur?
Temporal parietal lobes
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe
Cerebellum
In Alzheimer's disease, where does a symmetric decrease in perfusion occur?
Temporal parietal lobes
Frontal lobe
Occipital lobe
Cerebellum
Which of the following is true about Tl-201 brain imaging?
Tl-201 is not useful for CNS imaging
Tl-201 accumulation is minimal at sites of radiation necrosis
Tl-201 is effective for all tumors
Tl-201 accumulation is dependant on tumor grade
Tl-201 will not cross an intact BBB
Tl-201 can easily cross the BBB
Which of the following is true about Tl-201 brain imaging?
Tl-201 is not useful for CNS imaging
Tl-201 accumulation is minimal at sites of radiation necrosis
Tl-201 is effective for all tumors
Tl-201 accumulation is dependant on tumor grade
Tl-201 will not cross an intact BBB
Tl-201 can easily cross the BBB
How can CSF leaks be documented?
Activity detected in swabs placed in nose or ears
Blood tests
MRI results
CT scan images
How can CSF leaks be documented?
Activity detected in swabs placed in nose or ears
Blood tests
MRI results
CT scan images
Which part of the brain has the greatest blood flow seen on a NM brain scan?
White matter
Grey matter
Cerebellum
Brainstem
Which part of the brain has the greatest blood flow seen on a NM brain scan?
White matter
Grey matter
Cerebellum
Brainstem
What will hydrocephalus cause an increase in?
CSF
Lymph fluid
Brain tissue
Blood volume
What will hydrocephalus cause an increase in?
CSF
Lymph fluid
Brain tissue
Blood volume
Which of the following are indications for a SPECT brain scan?
Check for osteoporosis
Evaluate dementia
Assess lung function
Evaluate cerebrovascular disease
Evaluate for seizures foci
Evaluate kidney stones
Which of the following are indications for a SPECT brain scan?
Check for osteoporosis
Evaluate dementia
Assess lung function
Evaluate cerebrovascular disease
Evaluate for seizures foci
Evaluate kidney stones
What does a CNS 111In-DTPA study assess?
Tumor size
Cerebrospinal fluid pressure
Cerebral spinal flow dynamics
Blood flow
What does a CNS 111In-DTPA study assess?
Tumor size
Cerebrospinal fluid pressure
Cerebral spinal flow dynamics
Blood flow
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is used for ictal SECT imaging?
Tl-201
99mTc-RBC
99mTC-DTPA
99mTc-HMPAO
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is used for ictal SECT imaging?
Tl-201
99mTc-RBC
99mTC-DTPA
99mTc-HMPAO
True or False: The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from potentially toxic substances.
False
True
True or False: The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from potentially toxic substances.
False
True
True or False: 99mTC-DTPA may cross an altered blood-brain barrier.
True
False
True or False: 99mTC-DTPA may cross an altered blood-brain barrier.
True
False
Which substance does the brain need a constant supply of?
Glucose
Oxygen
Ketones
Carbon Dioxide
Which substance does the brain need a constant supply of?
Glucose
Oxygen
Ketones
Carbon Dioxide
True or False: 99mTc-RBC are labeled in vivo for a MUGA scan.
True
False
True or False: 99mTc-RBC are labeled in vivo for a MUGA scan.
True
False
What is the hollow center through which blood flows called?
Lumen
Septum
Ventricle
Atrium
What is the hollow center through which blood flows called?
Lumen
Septum
Ventricle
Atrium
When performing Dual isotope myocardial perfusion imaging, should the stress be performed first?
False
True
When performing Dual isotope myocardial perfusion imaging, should the stress be performed first?
False
True
What is the correct order of a normal heart conduction system?
Bundle branches, AV, SA, Bundle of HIS
SA, AV, Bundle of HIS, bundle branches
Bundle of HIS, SA, AV, bundle branches
AV, SA, bundle branches, Bundle of HIS
What is the correct order of a normal heart conduction system?
Bundle branches, AV, SA, Bundle of HIS
SA, AV, Bundle of HIS, bundle branches
Bundle of HIS, SA, AV, bundle branches
AV, SA, bundle branches, Bundle of HIS
True or False: Blood is heavier, thicker, and less viscous than water.
True
False
True or False: Blood is heavier, thicker, and less viscous than water.
True
False
What is the cause of reduced uptake on the post-stress images with fill in on delayed images?
Heart failure
Cardiac arrest
Myocardial ischemia
Valvular disease
What is the cause of reduced uptake on the post-stress images with fill in on delayed images?
Heart failure
Cardiac arrest
Myocardial ischemia
Valvular disease
Which RP causes more prominent attenuation artifacts in a myocardial perfusion stress test?
Tl-201
99mTc-DTPA
99mTc-RBC
99mTc-HMPAO
Which RP causes more prominent attenuation artifacts in a myocardial perfusion stress test?
Tl-201
99mTc-DTPA
99mTc-RBC
99mTc-HMPAO
Which of the following represents an abnormal EF for a MUGA scan?
70%
40%
50%
60%
Which of the following represents an abnormal EF for a MUGA scan?
70%
40%
50%
60%
When performing equilibrium gated blood pool studies, when is the first frame of data recorded?
P wave
R wave
S wave
T wave
When performing equilibrium gated blood pool studies, when is the first frame of data recorded?
P wave
R wave
S wave
T wave
What does transient dilation of the left ventricle on an exercise stress image signify?
Left ventricular dysfunction
Normal ventricular function
Increased cardiac efficiency
Decreased blood flow
What does transient dilation of the left ventricle on an exercise stress image signify?
Left ventricular dysfunction
Normal ventricular function
Increased cardiac efficiency
Decreased blood flow
Why is the modified protocol for myocardial stress imaging important?
It uses a higher dose of contrast
It is less invasive
It will take longer for the patient to achieve the necessary heart rate
It provides more detailed images
Why is the modified protocol for myocardial stress imaging important?
It uses a higher dose of contrast
It is less invasive
It will take longer for the patient to achieve the necessary heart rate
It provides more detailed images
How are 99m Tc labeled RBCs prepared?
By direct injection
In vitro
Using a thermal procedure
In vivo
How are 99m Tc labeled RBCs prepared?
By direct injection
In vitro
Using a thermal procedure
In vivo
How many frames per cycle does a gated myocardial perfusion stress test use?
4 frames
12 frames
8 frames
6 frames
How many frames per cycle does a gated myocardial perfusion stress test use?
4 frames
12 frames
8 frames
6 frames
Which radiopharmaceutical could be used for an infarct avid study?
99mTc-Sestamibi
201Tl
99mTc-PYP
99mTc-MIBI
Which radiopharmaceutical could be used for an infarct avid study?
99mTc-Sestamibi
201Tl
99mTc-PYP
99mTc-MIBI
Which radiopharmaceutical is not used for myocardial perfusion imaging?
99mTc-MIBI
99mPYP
201Tl
99mTc-Tetrofosmin
Which radiopharmaceutical is not used for myocardial perfusion imaging?
99mTc-MIBI
99mPYP
201Tl
99mTc-Tetrofosmin
How long should a patient having a Dipyridamole stress test avoid caffeine?
6 hours
12 hours
48 hours
24 hours
How long should a patient having a Dipyridamole stress test avoid caffeine?
6 hours
12 hours
48 hours
24 hours
Which radiopharmaceutical would localize more in the myocardium?
99mTc-PYP
201-Tl
99mTc-Sestamibi
99m Tc-MIBI
Which radiopharmaceutical would localize more in the myocardium?
99mTc-PYP
201-Tl
99mTc-Sestamibi
99m Tc-MIBI
What are the primary functions of the blood?
Digestion, respiration
Protection, absorption
Excretion, filtration
Transportation, regulation
What are the primary functions of the blood?
Digestion, respiration
Protection, absorption
Excretion, filtration
Transportation, regulation
What is a common characteristic of anemia?
Lower than normal number of RBCs
Higher than normal white blood cells
Higher than normal hemoglobin
Decreased platelet count
What is a common characteristic of anemia?
Lower than normal number of RBCs
Higher than normal white blood cells
Higher than normal hemoglobin
Decreased platelet count
Which condition indicates high blood pressure caused by the kidneys?
Secondary hypertension
Hypertensive crisis
Primary hypertension
Malignant hypertension
Which condition indicates high blood pressure caused by the kidneys?
Secondary hypertension
Hypertensive crisis
Primary hypertension
Malignant hypertension
What does vasodilator refer to?
Reduce blood flow
Stabilize blood pressure
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
What does vasodilator refer to?
Reduce blood flow
Stabilize blood pressure
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
What is Warfarin classified as?
A thrombolytic agent
An anticoagulant that is slower acting than heparin
A vasodilator
A blood pressure medication
What is Warfarin classified as?
A thrombolytic agent
An anticoagulant that is slower acting than heparin
A vasodilator
A blood pressure medication
What does hemophilia indicate?
High white blood cell count
Deficiency of coagulation
Low platelet count
Excessive clotting
What does hemophilia indicate?
High white blood cell count
Deficiency of coagulation
Low platelet count
Excessive clotting
What characterizes primary hypertension?
High BP due to medication
High BP with known causes
Higher BP with no identifiable cause
High BP due to kidney issues
What characterizes primary hypertension?
High BP due to medication
High BP with known causes
Higher BP with no identifiable cause
High BP due to kidney issues
What does vasoconstriction refer to?
Thicken the blood vessel wall
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
Open the blood vessel
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
What does vasoconstriction refer to?
Thicken the blood vessel wall
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
Open the blood vessel
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
What is the purpose of exercise for 1-2 minutes post-injection of the RP?
Circulate and localize the tracer on the myocardium
Reduce injection pain
Shorten imaging time
Enhance tracer stability
What is the purpose of exercise for 1-2 minutes post-injection of the RP?
Circulate and localize the tracer on the myocardium
Reduce injection pain
Shorten imaging time
Enhance tracer stability
What does 2011 refer to in myocardial imaging?
MRI
Ultrasound
Cyclotron
CT scan
What does 2011 refer to in myocardial imaging?
MRI
Ultrasound
Cyclotron
CT scan
Which drugs will increase blood pressure and heart rate?
Metoprolol
Atenolol
Dobutamine
Losartan
Which drugs will increase blood pressure and heart rate?
Metoprolol
Atenolol
Dobutamine
Losartan
Which is a disadvantage of using 201Tl for myocardial perfusion stress tests?
Lower energy creates attenuation
Short half life
Lower doses do not permit gating
Long effective half life
High cost
Reduced accuracy
Which is a disadvantage of using 201Tl for myocardial perfusion stress tests?
Lower energy creates attenuation
Short half life
Lower doses do not permit gating
Long effective half life
High cost
Reduced accuracy
What is the flow of deoxygenated blood from the heart?
Sup/inf vena cava to right atria to right ventricle to pulmonary artery
Left atria to left ventricle to pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein to left ventricle to aorta
Right atria to right ventricle to aorta
What is the flow of deoxygenated blood from the heart?
Sup/inf vena cava to right atria to right ventricle to pulmonary artery
Left atria to left ventricle to pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein to left ventricle to aorta
Right atria to right ventricle to aorta
What types of artifacts may occur during imaging?
Brightness and depth
Clarity and color
Attenuation and motion
Resolution and focus
What types of artifacts may occur during imaging?
Brightness and depth
Clarity and color
Attenuation and motion
Resolution and focus
When does clearance or redistribution of thallium occur?
Immediately after injection
After 2 hours
After 6 hours
Over the course of about 4 hours post injection
When does clearance or redistribution of thallium occur?
Immediately after injection
After 2 hours
After 6 hours
Over the course of about 4 hours post injection
What does MUGA stand for?
Multiple graded assessment
Magnetic ultrasound gated assessment
Myocardial gated analysis
Multi gated acquisition
What does MUGA stand for?
Multiple graded assessment
Magnetic ultrasound gated assessment
Myocardial gated analysis
Multi gated acquisition
In which wall of the heart is there a large myocardial infarction in the short axis view?
Septal
Anterior
Inferior
Lateral
In which wall of the heart is there a large myocardial infarction in the short axis view?
Septal
Anterior
Inferior
Lateral
What effect does 80% stenosis in a coronary artery have on blood flow at rest?
Increased blood flow
Normal blood flow
No effect
Decreased blood flow
What effect does 80% stenosis in a coronary artery have on blood flow at rest?
Increased blood flow
Normal blood flow
No effect
Decreased blood flow
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is preferred for ischemia and why?
201Tl has a higher sensitivity
99mTc has a longer half-life
99mTc has higher specificity
201Tl is less expensive
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is preferred for ischemia and why?
201Tl has a higher sensitivity
99mTc has a longer half-life
99mTc has higher specificity
201Tl is less expensive
What agent is most likely used for pharmacological myocardial stress testing in bronchospastic patients?
Regadenoson
Adenosine
Dobutamine
Dipyridamole
What agent is most likely used for pharmacological myocardial stress testing in bronchospastic patients?
Regadenoson
Adenosine
Dobutamine
Dipyridamole
Why do males have more red blood cells (RBCs)?
More testosterone
Higher oxygen levels
Fewer fluid levels
More physical activity
Why do males have more red blood cells (RBCs)?
More testosterone
Higher oxygen levels
Fewer fluid levels
More physical activity
What is the best view for separating the ventricles to calculate ejection fraction in a MUGA?
Anterior view
Posteroanterior view
45 degree LAO
Left lateral view
What is the best view for separating the ventricles to calculate ejection fraction in a MUGA?
Anterior view
Posteroanterior view
45 degree LAO
Left lateral view
In a 2-day protocol for a 99mTc-sestamibi myocardial perfusion stress test, what is the dose range for both days?
50-60 mCi
30-40 mCi
40-50 mCi
20-30 mCi
In a 2-day protocol for a 99mTc-sestamibi myocardial perfusion stress test, what is the dose range for both days?
50-60 mCi
30-40 mCi
40-50 mCi
20-30 mCi
Which parameter is not assessed from a first-pass ventriculography?
Ejection fraction
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Myocardial perfusion
Which parameter is not assessed from a first-pass ventriculography?
Ejection fraction
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Myocardial perfusion
What structure makes up the apex of the heart?
Valves
Chambers
Ventricles
Atria
What structure makes up the apex of the heart?
Valves
Chambers
Ventricles
Atria
What is the expected motion for the inferior wall in a long-axis heart image?
Dyskinetic
Normal
Hypokinetic
Akinetic
What is the expected motion for the inferior wall in a long-axis heart image?
Dyskinetic
Normal
Hypokinetic
Akinetic
Why must a 201-Tl stress test not be imaged within 10 minutes or after 20 minutes?
To prevent patient fatigue
Due to cardiac creep and redistribution
For optimal imaging angle
To avoid radiation exposure
Why must a 201-Tl stress test not be imaged within 10 minutes or after 20 minutes?
To prevent patient fatigue
Due to cardiac creep and redistribution
For optimal imaging angle
To avoid radiation exposure
What type of display is used to present myocardial perfusion data?
Scatter plot
Bull's eye display
3D imaging
Line graph
What type of display is used to present myocardial perfusion data?
Scatter plot
Bull's eye display
3D imaging
Line graph
What does it indicate if a 65-year-old male reaches a max heart rate of 140 during a stress test?
He has normal function
He has ischemia in his wall
He is healthy
He has tachycardia
What does it indicate if a 65-year-old male reaches a max heart rate of 140 during a stress test?
He has normal function
He has ischemia in his wall
He is healthy
He has tachycardia
What does suboptimal stress during a stress test indicate?
Ischemic
Non-ischemic
Normal
Healthy
What does suboptimal stress during a stress test indicate?
Ischemic
Non-ischemic
Normal
Healthy
In cardiac SPECT imaging, the transverse slices are reoriented along which axis?
Right atrium
Coronary arteries
Short axis of the left ventricle
Long axis of the left ventricle
In cardiac SPECT imaging, the transverse slices are reoriented along which axis?
Right atrium
Coronary arteries
Short axis of the left ventricle
Long axis of the left ventricle
When injecting the RP during a myocardial perfusion stress test, when should it ideally be injected?
Before exercise
Post-exercise
Peak stress
At rest
When injecting the RP during a myocardial perfusion stress test, when should it ideally be injected?
Before exercise
Post-exercise
Peak stress
At rest
What is the quantitative presentation of myocardial uptake and washout known as?
Slice view
Cardiac map
Heart profile
Bulls-eye
What is the quantitative presentation of myocardial uptake and washout known as?
Slice view
Cardiac map
Heart profile
Bulls-eye
How many flaps or cusps does the mitral valve have?
2
3
4
1
How many flaps or cusps does the mitral valve have?
2
3
4
1
Which of the following is not a contraindication for adenosine?
Heart block
Eating within 24 hr
Hypotension
Asthma
Which of the following is not a contraindication for adenosine?
Heart block
Eating within 24 hr
Hypotension
Asthma
How does a RBC diffuse into the cell if it is 8um in diameter with a 5um membrane?
They are flexible and concave
Heavy and round
Rigid and flat
Large and spherical
How does a RBC diffuse into the cell if it is 8um in diameter with a 5um membrane?
They are flexible and concave
Heavy and round
Rigid and flat
Large and spherical
What is the target heart rate for a 50-year-old male during a myocardial perfusion stress test?
160
144
120
130
What is the target heart rate for a 50-year-old male during a myocardial perfusion stress test?
160
144
120
130
How does filtering prevent arrhythmias during a MUGA scan?
Increases cardiac output
Ensures at least 6 cardiac cycles without arrhythmias
Normalizes blood pressure
Limits heart rate variability
How does filtering prevent arrhythmias during a MUGA scan?
Increases cardiac output
Ensures at least 6 cardiac cycles without arrhythmias
Normalizes blood pressure
Limits heart rate variability
What RP is used to image myocardial necrosis?
99mTC-HDP
Thallium-201
Gallium-67
Fluorodeoxyglucose
What RP is used to image myocardial necrosis?
99mTC-HDP
Thallium-201
Gallium-67
Fluorodeoxyglucose
Which artery primarily supplies the inferior wall of the heart?
LAD
RCA
PDA
LCX
Which artery primarily supplies the inferior wall of the heart?
LAD
RCA
PDA
LCX
When should SPECT imaging begin after high-level stress exercise?
Immediately after exercise
When respiration has returned to normal
Before resting
After 10 minutes
When should SPECT imaging begin after high-level stress exercise?
Immediately after exercise
When respiration has returned to normal
Before resting
After 10 minutes
What does Dipyridamole allow the heart to achieve during stress testing?
75% of its max HR
100% of its max HR
85% of its max HR
60% of its max HR
What does Dipyridamole allow the heart to achieve during stress testing?
75% of its max HR
100% of its max HR
85% of its max HR
60% of its max HR
What does a grade of 0 indicate in an infarct avid study?
Unknown myocardial condition
Normal myocardium with no myocardial infarctions
Severe myocardial infarction
Mild myocardial injury
What does a grade of 0 indicate in an infarct avid study?
Unknown myocardial condition
Normal myocardium with no myocardial infarctions
Severe myocardial infarction
Mild myocardial injury
What view of the esophagus is used to perform an esophageal transit study?
Ant
Supine
Lateral
Post
What view of the esophagus is used to perform an esophageal transit study?
Ant
Supine
Lateral
Post
Which of the following is NOT an indication for liver/spleen imaging?
Bile stones in the liver
Ascites
Liver tumors
Cirrhosis
Which of the following is NOT an indication for liver/spleen imaging?
Bile stones in the liver
Ascites
Liver tumors
Cirrhosis
What is the typical dose of mCi given to an adult pt in a Meckel's diverticulum scan?
15
5
10
20
What is the typical dose of mCi given to an adult pt in a Meckel's diverticulum scan?
15
5
10
20
What substance plays a role in emulsification?
Pancreatic enzyme
Gastric juice
Bile
Saliva
What substance plays a role in emulsification?
Pancreatic enzyme
Gastric juice
Bile
Saliva
What is a common cause of a GI bleed in children?
Gastric ulcers
Inflammatory bowel disease
Meckel diverticulum
Food allergies
What is a common cause of a GI bleed in children?
Gastric ulcers
Inflammatory bowel disease
Meckel diverticulum
Food allergies
In a Hepatobiliary scan, where should the liver be positioned in relation to your imaging screen?
Upper left corner
Upper right corner
Lower right corner
Center
In a Hepatobiliary scan, where should the liver be positioned in relation to your imaging screen?
Upper left corner
Upper right corner
Lower right corner
Center
What is the target organ for 99mTc pertechnetate?
Stomach
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
What is the target organ for 99mTc pertechnetate?
Stomach
Liver
Pancreas
Kidney
What are two derivatives of 99mTc IDA?
Bile and Gastrin
HIDA and SPECT
Thyroid and Gallium
Choletec and Mebro
What are two derivatives of 99mTc IDA?
Bile and Gastrin
HIDA and SPECT
Thyroid and Gallium
Choletec and Mebro
For a patient with xerostomia, which procedure should the tech prepare the room for?
CT scan
Ultrasound
Sialography
MRI
For a patient with xerostomia, which procedure should the tech prepare the room for?
CT scan
Ultrasound
Sialography
MRI
How many uCi of HIDA are given in a cholescintigraphy study?
7500
5000
2500
1000
How many uCi of HIDA are given in a cholescintigraphy study?
7500
5000
2500
1000
Which of the following is NOT an action of saliva?
Aids in digestion
Cleanses mouth
Dissolves gastric juices
Facilitates taste
Which of the following is NOT an action of saliva?
Aids in digestion
Cleanses mouth
Dissolves gastric juices
Facilitates taste
What are the actions of saliva?
Evaluates esophageal transit
Absorbs nutrients
Lubricates food, dissolves food, initiates chemical breakdown
Contracts sphincter of Oddi
What are the actions of saliva?
Evaluates esophageal transit
Absorbs nutrients
Lubricates food, dissolves food, initiates chemical breakdown
Contracts sphincter of Oddi
Why is the head tilted backward during salivary gland imaging?
To increase saliva production
To enhance visual clarity
To align with the esophagus
To prevent thyroid superimposition over the salivary glands
Why is the head tilted backward during salivary gland imaging?
To increase saliva production
To enhance visual clarity
To align with the esophagus
To prevent thyroid superimposition over the salivary glands
What can esophageal imaging evaluate?
Movement of foods through the esophagus
Nutrient absorption
Gallbladder visualization
Liver function
What can esophageal imaging evaluate?
Movement of foods through the esophagus
Nutrient absorption
Gallbladder visualization
Liver function
What is visualized in the first hour of a normal hepatobiliary scan?
Spleen, small intestine, liver
Esophagus, stomach, colon
Thyroid gland, pancreas, ileum
Common duct, gallbladder, duodenum
What is visualized in the first hour of a normal hepatobiliary scan?
Spleen, small intestine, liver
Esophagus, stomach, colon
Thyroid gland, pancreas, ileum
Common duct, gallbladder, duodenum
What is commonly used for salivary gland imaging?
Technetium-98
Gallium-67
Iodine-123
99mTc
What is commonly used for salivary gland imaging?
Technetium-98
Gallium-67
Iodine-123
99mTc
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Regulating blood sugar
Phagocytosis
Absorption of nutrients
Protein metabolism
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Regulating blood sugar
Phagocytosis
Absorption of nutrients
Protein metabolism
At what size will solids remain in the stomach without being secreted into the intestines?
10mm
1mm
5mm
3mm
At what size will solids remain in the stomach without being secreted into the intestines?
10mm
1mm
5mm
3mm
What does nonvisualization of the gallbladder in cholescintigraphy indicate?
Liver cirrhosis
Chronic gastritis
Acute cholecystitis
Esophageal rupture
What does nonvisualization of the gallbladder in cholescintigraphy indicate?
Liver cirrhosis
Chronic gastritis
Acute cholecystitis
Esophageal rupture
How long can delays on a GI bleed scan extend?
24 hours
48 hours
12 hours
36 hours
How long can delays on a GI bleed scan extend?
24 hours
48 hours
12 hours
36 hours
Are decay and attenuation corrections used for gastric emptying half time calculations?
Only during advanced scans
False
Only in pediatric patients
True
Are decay and attenuation corrections used for gastric emptying half time calculations?
Only during advanced scans
False
Only in pediatric patients
True
How long should a patient fast before an esophageal transit study?
6 hours
10 hours
8 hours
4 hours
How long should a patient fast before an esophageal transit study?
6 hours
10 hours
8 hours
4 hours
What should be included in the field of view during a gastrointestinal bleed study?
Small margins of liver and spleen
Only the stomach
Liver only
Only the small intestine
What should be included in the field of view during a gastrointestinal bleed study?
Small margins of liver and spleen
Only the stomach
Liver only
Only the small intestine
What is the purpose of administering morphine sulfate in imaging?
Enhance gallbladder visibility
Increase saliva production
Relax the diaphragm
Contract the sphincter of Oddi
What is the purpose of administering morphine sulfate in imaging?
Enhance gallbladder visibility
Increase saliva production
Relax the diaphragm
Contract the sphincter of Oddi
What percent of 99mTC SC will go to a normal spleen?
20
5
15
10
What percent of 99mTC SC will go to a normal spleen?
20
5
15
10
What is the purpose of salivary gland imaging?
Size, location, and function
Blood flow analysis
Tumor detection
Nutrient absorption
What is the purpose of salivary gland imaging?
Size, location, and function
Blood flow analysis
Tumor detection
Nutrient absorption
Where does most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur?
Small intestines
Large intestines
Stomach
Pancreas
Where does most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur?
Small intestines
Large intestines
Stomach
Pancreas
Should a Meckels Diverticulum study get more activity than a GI bleed scan?
It depends
Only in children
True
False
Should a Meckels Diverticulum study get more activity than a GI bleed scan?
It depends
Only in children
True
False
When should imaging begin for a 99mTc SC technique for identifying a gastrointestinal bleed?
Immediately after injection
Only during static imaging
With an anterior flow study for 2-3 min and static every 1 to 2 min for 20-30 min thereafter
After a 1 hr waiting period
When should imaging begin for a 99mTc SC technique for identifying a gastrointestinal bleed?
Immediately after injection
Only during static imaging
With an anterior flow study for 2-3 min and static every 1 to 2 min for 20-30 min thereafter
After a 1 hr waiting period
How many pairs of salivary glands are there?
1
4
3
2
How many pairs of salivary glands are there?
1
4
3
2
What is the alimentary canal also known as?
Epidermis
GI tract
Digestive system
Cardiovascular system
What is the alimentary canal also known as?
Epidermis
GI tract
Digestive system
Cardiovascular system
What cells compose the liver?
Adipocytes and fibroblasts
Kupffer cells, phagocytic cells, and hepatocytes
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
B cells, T cells, and macrophages
What cells compose the liver?
Adipocytes and fibroblasts
Kupffer cells, phagocytic cells, and hepatocytes
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
B cells, T cells, and macrophages
Which region of the stomach acts as a reservoir?
Body
Cardia
Pylorus
Fundus
Which region of the stomach acts as a reservoir?
Body
Cardia
Pylorus
Fundus
Why is the Tc-99m labeled RBC technique preferred for imaging gastrointestinal bleeds?
For liver function tests
For intermittent bleeds
For detecting tumors
For constant bleeds
Why is the Tc-99m labeled RBC technique preferred for imaging gastrointestinal bleeds?
For liver function tests
For intermittent bleeds
For detecting tumors
For constant bleeds
What will the flow study demonstrate in a liver/spleen scan?
Tumor presence
Vascularity defect
Fluid accumulation
Solid organ size
What will the flow study demonstrate in a liver/spleen scan?
Tumor presence
Vascularity defect
Fluid accumulation
Solid organ size
What is the appropriate volume of solution for RN imaging for gastroesophageal reflux?
150ml total
200ml of orange juice only
400ml total
300ml (150 ml of orange juice and 150ml of acid)
What is the appropriate volume of solution for RN imaging for gastroesophageal reflux?
150ml total
200ml of orange juice only
400ml total
300ml (150 ml of orange juice and 150ml of acid)
How are radiocolloids cleared from circulation?
Macrophages
Phagocytes
Kupffer cells
Neutrophils
How are radiocolloids cleared from circulation?
Macrophages
Phagocytes
Kupffer cells
Neutrophils
What are stones in the gallbladder that may or may not cause symptoms called?
Cholelithiasis
Gallbladder disease
Choledocholithiasis
Cholecystitis
What are stones in the gallbladder that may or may not cause symptoms called?
Cholelithiasis
Gallbladder disease
Choledocholithiasis
Cholecystitis
Should a 1 hr fasting be avoided in a cholescintigraphy study?
False
Depends on medication
Only in children
True
Should a 1 hr fasting be avoided in a cholescintigraphy study?
False
Depends on medication
Only in children
True
Which of the following is not an activity of the digestive system?
Absorption
Secretion
Urination
Digestion
Which of the following is not an activity of the digestive system?
Absorption
Secretion
Urination
Digestion
What condition occurs when the esophageal sphincter fails to relax after food is eaten?
Achalasia
Dysphagia
Acid reflux
Gastroesophageal reflux
What condition occurs when the esophageal sphincter fails to relax after food is eaten?
Achalasia
Dysphagia
Acid reflux
Gastroesophageal reflux
What does the stomach secrete?
Saliva and insulin
Mucus and hydrochloric acid
Bile and enzymes
Amylase and lipase
What does the stomach secrete?
Saliva and insulin
Mucus and hydrochloric acid
Bile and enzymes
Amylase and lipase
Where is the gallbladder located?
Inferior to the pancreas
Medial to the spleen
Visceral to the liver
Posterior to the stomach
Where is the gallbladder located?
Inferior to the pancreas
Medial to the spleen
Visceral to the liver
Posterior to the stomach
What is the term for saclike outpouching of the wall of the colon?
Meckel's diverticulum
Herniation
Diverticulosis
Appendicitis
What is the term for saclike outpouching of the wall of the colon?
Meckel's diverticulum
Herniation
Diverticulosis
Appendicitis
How long should a patient fast prior to a cholescintigraphy?
2-5 hours
1 hour
12 hours
8 hours
How long should a patient fast prior to a cholescintigraphy?
2-5 hours
1 hour
12 hours
8 hours
Chronic cholecystitis will cause the gallbladder to visualize at what time?
120 minutes
90 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
Chronic cholecystitis will cause the gallbladder to visualize at what time?
120 minutes
90 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
Which anatomical region of the stomach controls the emptying rate for liquids?
Pylorus
Fundus
Cardia
Body
Which anatomical region of the stomach controls the emptying rate for liquids?
Pylorus
Fundus
Cardia
Body
What is demonstrated by a marker image taken for a liver/spleen scan?
Blood flow
Tissue type
Shape
Size
What is demonstrated by a marker image taken for a liver/spleen scan?
Blood flow
Tissue type
Shape
Size
Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by the duodenum that stimulates which action?
Gallbladder contraction
Stomach acid production
Insulin secretion
Bile secretion
Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by the duodenum that stimulates which action?
Gallbladder contraction
Stomach acid production
Insulin secretion
Bile secretion
What is the most common cause of chronic gastroparesis?
Cirrhosis
Diabetes
Cholecystitis
Hyperthyroidism
What is the most common cause of chronic gastroparesis?
Cirrhosis
Diabetes
Cholecystitis
Hyperthyroidism
In preparation for an esophageal transit study, how much 99mTC SC is prepared?
100 uci
300 uci
200 uci
500 uci
In preparation for an esophageal transit study, how much 99mTC SC is prepared?
100 uci
300 uci
200 uci
500 uci
A cold spot on a liver/spleen scan represents what?
Cysts
Abscesses
Tumors
Inflammation
A cold spot on a liver/spleen scan represents what?
Cysts
Abscesses
Tumors
Inflammation
What effect does CCK have on the gallbladder and the sphincter of Oddi?
Contracts; contracts
Relaxes; contracts
Relaxes; relaxes
Contracts; relaxes
What effect does CCK have on the gallbladder and the sphincter of Oddi?
Contracts; contracts
Relaxes; contracts
Relaxes; relaxes
Contracts; relaxes
What is the main determinant of the rate of liquid gastric emptying?
Viscosity of contents
Caloric content
Temperature
pH level
What is the main determinant of the rate of liquid gastric emptying?
Viscosity of contents
Caloric content
Temperature
pH level
What effect does Captopril have on GFR in a stenotic kidney?
Decrease
Variable
No effect
Increase
What effect does Captopril have on GFR in a stenotic kidney?
Decrease
Variable
No effect
Increase
Which RP is used in a direct cystogram?
99mTc HMPAO
99mTc SC
99mTc DMSA
99mTc DTPA
Which RP is used in a direct cystogram?
99mTc HMPAO
99mTc SC
99mTc DMSA
99mTc DTPA
What is a normal ERPF?
1000 ml/min
400 ml/min
600 ml/min
800 ml/min
What is a normal ERPF?
1000 ml/min
400 ml/min
600 ml/min
800 ml/min
Does a transplanted kidney create new nephrons?
True
False
Only in children
Only in adults
Does a transplanted kidney create new nephrons?
True
False
Only in children
Only in adults
How is 99mTc DTPA cleared from the kidney?
GFR
Active transport
Passive diffusion
Tubular secretion
How is 99mTc DTPA cleared from the kidney?
GFR
Active transport
Passive diffusion
Tubular secretion
What indicates a split renal function of 43% and 57% during a captopril renal scan?
Normal
Equivalent function
Abnormal
Insufficient data
What indicates a split renal function of 43% and 57% during a captopril renal scan?
Normal
Equivalent function
Abnormal
Insufficient data
Which RP has some clearance by the renal tubules?
GH, MAG 3, OIH
99mTc MUGA
99mTc DMSA
99mTc SC
Which RP has some clearance by the renal tubules?
GH, MAG 3, OIH
99mTc MUGA
99mTc DMSA
99mTc SC
When assessing relative renal function, what is useful for imaging?
1-2 min image
15 min image
5 min image
30 min image
When assessing relative renal function, what is useful for imaging?
1-2 min image
15 min image
5 min image
30 min image
In a renal scan, if the right kidney is slightly lower than the left, what should the technician do?
Alter the patient position
Stop the scan
Repeat the scan
Continue the scan; this is normal
In a renal scan, if the right kidney is slightly lower than the left, what should the technician do?
Alter the patient position
Stop the scan
Repeat the scan
Continue the scan; this is normal
Which phase of the time activity curve shows the peak transit time?
Excretory
Filtration
Secretory
Preparatory
Which phase of the time activity curve shows the peak transit time?
Excretory
Filtration
Secretory
Preparatory
What is the normal peak transit time in a functional renal scan?
6 min
8 min
2 min
4 min
What is the normal peak transit time in a functional renal scan?
6 min
8 min
2 min
4 min
Which renal imaging agent is cleared by tubular secretion?
DMSA
DTPA
MAG3
GH
Which renal imaging agent is cleared by tubular secretion?
DMSA
DTPA
MAG3
GH
What is the normal GFR value?
200 ml/min
100 ml/min
150 ml/min
125 ml/min
What is the normal GFR value?
200 ml/min
100 ml/min
150 ml/min
125 ml/min
What does a diuretic renal imaging study help differentiate?
Renal failure from normal function
Dilation from obstructed renal collecting system
Tumors from cysts
Infections from stones
What does a diuretic renal imaging study help differentiate?
Renal failure from normal function
Dilation from obstructed renal collecting system
Tumors from cysts
Infections from stones
What is the notch near the center of the kidney called?
Cortex
Medulla
Hilus
Pelvis
What is the notch near the center of the kidney called?
Cortex
Medulla
Hilus
Pelvis
ACE augments renal studies in patients with what condition?
Diabetes
Heart failure
Chronic kidney disease
RAS related hypertension
ACE augments renal studies in patients with what condition?
Diabetes
Heart failure
Chronic kidney disease
RAS related hypertension
Which agents are commonly used for morphologic renal imaging?
DTPA and creatinine
DMSA and GH
MAG3 and DTPA
MAG3 and ultrasound
Which agents are commonly used for morphologic renal imaging?
DTPA and creatinine
DMSA and GH
MAG3 and DTPA
MAG3 and ultrasound
Is the split renal function measured using GFR and ERPF advantageous over BUN and creatinine?
Not always
False
True
Sometimes
Is the split renal function measured using GFR and ERPF advantageous over BUN and creatinine?
Not always
False
True
Sometimes
What are the examples of functions of the nephrons?
Aldosterone
None
Water balance
Glucose reabsorption
What are the examples of functions of the nephrons?
Aldosterone
None
Water balance
Glucose reabsorption
Which conditions are indicators for renal scintigraphy?
Acute asthma
Heart failure
Chronic renal failure
Liver disease
Which conditions are indicators for renal scintigraphy?
Acute asthma
Heart failure
Chronic renal failure
Liver disease
What is the most accurate nuclear medicine technique for measuring renal size?
CT Scan
X-Ray
Ultrasound
Nuclear imaging technique
What is the most accurate nuclear medicine technique for measuring renal size?
CT Scan
X-Ray
Ultrasound
Nuclear imaging technique
What is a characteristic of the morphologic renal tracer DMSA?
Only used in emergency cases
Retention in the renal parenchyma for a prolonged period of time
Low sensitivity for renal function
Rapid elimination from the body
What is a characteristic of the morphologic renal tracer DMSA?
Only used in emergency cases
Retention in the renal parenchyma for a prolonged period of time
Low sensitivity for renal function
Rapid elimination from the body
What radioactive pharmaceutical (RP) was likely used in renal perfusion imaging?
DMSA
I-131 mIBG
Technecium-99m
Mag3
What radioactive pharmaceutical (RP) was likely used in renal perfusion imaging?
DMSA
I-131 mIBG
Technecium-99m
Mag3
What should a patient receiving I-131 mIBG for pheochromocytoma also receive?
Lugol's solution
Water
Captopril
Vitamin B12
What should a patient receiving I-131 mIBG for pheochromocytoma also receive?
Lugol's solution
Water
Captopril
Vitamin B12
What substance is produced as a result of protein catabolism?
Urea, ammonia, and NH3
Glucose
Lactate
Creatinine
What substance is produced as a result of protein catabolism?
Urea, ammonia, and NH3
Glucose
Lactate
Creatinine
What is a cytogram also referred to as?
Kidney scan
CT Urogram
Urine culture
Vesicouretal reflux study
What is a cytogram also referred to as?
Kidney scan
CT Urogram
Urine culture
Vesicouretal reflux study
What happens to GFR when blood pressure drops?
Stay the same
Decrease
Short term increase
Increase
What happens to GFR when blood pressure drops?
Stay the same
Decrease
Short term increase
Increase
What must be done if the patient arrives late for a renal imaging study?
Proceed with the original kit
Wait for the patient to arrive in 1 hour
A new kit has to be made
Use the same kit for 24 hours
What must be done if the patient arrives late for a renal imaging study?
Proceed with the original kit
Wait for the patient to arrive in 1 hour
A new kit has to be made
Use the same kit for 24 hours
What is a primary effect of Angiotensin II in the body?
Raise GFR and decrease blood pressure
Raise GFR, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure
Increase GFR, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure
Lower GFR, decrease blood volume, and decrease blood pressure
What is a primary effect of Angiotensin II in the body?
Raise GFR and decrease blood pressure
Raise GFR, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure
Increase GFR, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure
Lower GFR, decrease blood volume, and decrease blood pressure
What medication is also known as furosemide?
Thiazide diuretic
Potassium-sparing diuretic
Loop diuretic
ACE inhibitor
What medication is also known as furosemide?
Thiazide diuretic
Potassium-sparing diuretic
Loop diuretic
ACE inhibitor
Which of the following is NOT a factor for osteoporosis?
Women (white)
Elderly
Calcium
Vitamin D deficient
What helps to clear the injected material from your soft tissue during a bone scan?
Resting
Smoking
Drinking fluids
Eating
How are 99m Tc-bound phosphates taken to bones?
By nerves
By muscle contraction
By blood
By lymphatic system
What types of slices are obtained from a SPECT acquisition?
Sagittal, coronal, and axial
Transverse, sagittal, and coronal
Radial, static, and dynamic
Horizontal, vertical, and axial
When evaluating a prosthesis with a bone scan, what can be assessed?
Bone density
Muscle strength
Infection around the prosthesis
Blood flow
Placement of the prosthesis
What is the characteristic of Paget's disease?
Accelerated remodeling process
Osteomyelitis
Decreased vascularity
Bone fragility
How many mCi of Tc-99m diphosphonates should be given for an adult 3 phase limited bone scan?
10
30
50
20
How do Mets appear on a bone scan?
A focal hot spot
Widespread diffusion
Decreased uptake
Uniform intensity
What will radiation therapy defects show as?
Focal enhancement
Decreased accumulation of the RP
Increased uptake
Homogeneous distribution
Metabolic disorders like hyperthyroidism appear as what on a bone scan?
Hot spot
Super scan
Normal scan
Cold spot
Why was Sr-85 limited to a dose of about 100 uCi?
Short decay time
Low half-life
Long effective half life
High activity
When is the blood pool image of a 3 phase bone scan taken?
90 sec
120 sec
60 sec post injection
30 sec
What is the body's critical organ for radiation dose in skeletal scintigraphy?
Heart
Bladder
Brain
Liver
What should the flow of a 3 phase bone scan be?
2-5 photons/sec
1-2 photons/sec
10-15 photons/sec
5-10 photons/sec
What is the purpose of a 2-4 hour delay after the injection of the RP in a bone scan?
Improved image quality
Reduced radiation exposure
Increased washout of the RP from soft tissue
Increased retention
What diagnosis is indicated for a 15 yo male with upper right femur pain and mass?
Osteoporosis
Arthritis
Fracture
Primary bone tumor
Where do blood vessels perforate into bones?
Haversian canal
Medullary cavity
Volkman's canal
Nutrient foramen
Where is the most appropriate injection site for this scan?
Back
Right wrist
Left thigh
Left antecubital
Which bone imaging RP has the fastest blood clearance?
Iodine-123
Tc-99m MDP
Tc-99m HDP
Thallium-201
Which of the following is not an indication for a bone scan?
R/O a PE in the bone
Diagnosis of reflex sympathetic dystrophy
Evaluation of Paget's disease
Detection of stress fractures
Which minerals are needed for bone remodeling?
Fe, Zn, and Cu
K, Na, and Cl
Ca, Mg, and B
P, S, and I
Why are post-menopausal women more likely to get osteoporosis?
Lack of estrogen
Frequent exercise
Excessive vitamin D
High calcium intake
Young children have very hot _____ plates reflecting the high metabolic rate.
Medullary
Periosteal
Cortical
Epiphyseal
METS are easy to distinguish because they show up with a discernable pattern. True or False?
True
False
What is palliative therapy used for?
Pain from METS
Preventing metastasis
Increasing bone density
Surgical correction
Which radionuclides can be used for therapy of bone METS?
Radium-223
131 Iodine
153 Sm- Ethlendiaminetetramethylene, 89-SR, and 186 hydroxyethylen
Cobalt-60
What is the term for increased uptake following chemotherapy due to bone healing?
Stability index
Flare phenomenon
Cortical blunting
Decrement effect
Which of the following is least likely to cause an artifact on a bone scan?
Obesity
Recent surgery
Metal implants
Colostomy bag
What is the appearance of newly infarcted bone on a bone scan?
Normal uptake
Variable uptake
Cold lesion
Hot lesion
What occurs in the acute phase of avascular necrosis of bone?
Normal perfusion
Hyperperfusion
Hypoperfusion on blood flow phase and hypoactivity on delayed skeletal phase
Increased activity
What factors can reduce the quality of a bone scan?
Smoking and diet
Exercise history
Congestive heart failure, renal insufficiency, and obesity
Age and sex
How many lobes does each lung have?
Right has 2, Left has 3
Right has 4, Left has 2
Right has 3, Left has 1
Right has 3, Left has 2
What view does a normal lung scan show if viewed from the front?
Medial due to lung structure
Posterior due to diaphragm
Lateral due to oblique fissures
Anterior due to cardiac notch
In a 99mTc-MAA perfusion lung scan, how many particles should you use?
200,000-400,000 particles at 10-30 um
400,000-600,000 particles at 20-30 um
100,000-200,000 particles at 5-10 um
300,000-500,000 particles at 15-25 um
Which of the following radionuclides can be used in a ventilation lung scan?
Co-60, Ge-68, In-111
Xe-133, Xe-127, 99mTc-DTPA
Xe-135, Ga-67, I-123
I-131, Tc-99m, Kr-78
What are three risk factors for pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Diabetes, hypertension, travel history
High cholesterol, family history, inactivity
Smoking, BC, history of DVT
Obesity, age over 60, recent surgery
How long should you wait after injecting TC-99m MAA before scanning?
Half an hour
45 minutes
1 hour
15 minutes
What is one main function of the lungs?
Filter waste from the blood
Regulate blood sugar
Deliver oxygen to the blood
Store carbon dioxide
What is one advantage of using 133-Xe gas in a vent lung scan?
Better for COPD
More expensive
Longer scan time
Increased radiation
Why is the right lung thicker and shorter than the left?
Due to a larger heart
Less air capacity
Due to the liver underneath
More blood flow
What does Atelectasis refer to?
Infection in lung tissue
Air in the pleural cavity
Collapsed lung
Blood in the pleural cavity
What does Hemothorax mean?
Inflammation of lung lining
Pleural cavity fills with blood
Fluid in lung tissue
Air in the pleural cavity
What is Pleurisy associated with?
Coughing up blood
High fever
Shortness of breath
Back and chest pain from friction
What kind of bacteria causes Tuberculosis?
Fungal infection
Bacteria that destroys lung tissue
Viral infection
Non-infectious disease
What is a PE in medical terms?
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary embolism
Blood clot in pulmonary artery
Pneumonia
What does Pneumothorax refer to?
Blockage in airway
Air in the pleural cavity
Fluid in lungs
Inflammation of lung tissue
What condition involves disintegration of alveolar walls?
Interstitial lung disease
Asthma
Emphysema
Bronchitis
What does Hilus refer to in lung anatomy?
Air sacs in lungs
Portion allowing blood vessels to enter and exit
Pleural lining
Bronchial tubes
What does Hypoxia mean?
High level of carbon dioxide
Normal oxygen levels
Low level of oxygen in the body
Dehydration
What could cause a cold defect in the right base on a lung scan?
Poor blood flow
Infection
Tuberculosis
Inhaled irritants
How many capillaries generally become blocked during a perfusion lung scan using 99mTc MAA?
Fewer than 1 in 1000 and less than 0.1%
1 in 500
Less than 1 in 100
More than 1 in 1000
What is the air pressure in the lungs before inspiration?
1000 mmHg
750 mmHg
Atmospheric pressure and 760 mmHg
500 mmHg
By what process do respiratory gases get exchanged in the lungs?
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active transport
Filtration
How does 99mTc MAA localize in the lungs?
By simple diffusion
By ion exchange
It does not localize by active transport, simple diffusion, filtration, or ion exchange
Through active transport
If only one scan can be performed, which lung scan should be done to rule out a PE?
CT scan
MRI scan
Perfusion
Ventilation
Does perfusion and ventilation lung imaging remove the need for a chest X-ray?
False
Depends on the case
Only sometimes
True
What is the substance dispensed into a patient using the shown equipment?
Air
99mTc MAA
Radioactive iodine
99mTc-DTPA
What is the most common treatment for a pulmonary embolism?
Warfarin
Heparin solution treatment
Aspirin
Oxygen therapy
In how many steps can a lung quantification study be completed?
5-6 steps
2-3 steps
3-4 steps
1-2 steps
Which of the following is not a symptom of a pulmonary embolism?
Chest pain
Pulmonary infarction
Shortness of breath
Cough
What should not be done when injecting Tc-99m MAA for a lung scan?
You should draw blood back into the syringe and you should inject with the patient standing
Monitor patient vitals
Inject slowly
Use a sterile syringe
Which phase of a Xe-133 vent lung scan requires the patient to rebreath Xe-133?
Initial
Final
Equilibrium
Clearance
What are the 3 diagnostic categories for a PE with a V/Q scan?
Minor, moderate, severe
Beginner, intermediate, expert
Low, intermediate, and high
Normal, abnormal, critical
How can a perfusion scan be used to manage patients with lung cancer who are candidates for surgical resection?
Monitoring heart rate
Checking blood pressure
Assessing lung function
Quantitation of the scan
What process removes particles used for perfusion imaging by the lung?
Osmosis
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Filtration
Can cold spots appear in lung images when blood clots form in the syringe used to inject 99mTC-MAA?
False
True
How long is the biological half-life of Xe-133 clearing from the lungs?
1 minute
5 minutes
30 seconds
10 seconds
What does a whole body I-131 study determine?
Lung function
METS for thyroid cancer
Heart health
Bone density
Why can Tc99m be used for a thyroid scan but not an uptake?
It only identifies cancer
It gets trapped but not organified
It is too radioactive
It doesn't bind to receptors
What condition is characterized by hypersecretion of HGH in adulthood?
Diabetes Mellitus
Giantism
Cushing's syndrome
Acromegaly
What causes Cretinism?
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Hyposecretion of thyroid hormones during fetal life or infancy
Excessive glucose in the blood
Hypersecretion of HGH
Which disease involves the production of an antibody that mimics TSH?
Cushing's syndrome
Acromegaly
Diabetes Mellitus
Graves disease
What does Diabetes Mellitus result in?
Increase in cortisol
High thyroid hormones
Low insulin levels
Elevation of glucose in the blood
What condition results from hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone?
Addison's disease
Hashimoto's disease
Goiter
Pituitary dwarfism
What is the general term for an enlarged thyroid gland?
Thyroiditis
Grave's disease
Pituitary dwarfism
Goiter
What causes pituitary dwarfism?
Thyroid dysfunction
Hypersecretion of hGH
Growth hormone resistance
Hyposecretion of hGH during childhood
What happens in Hashimoto's disease?
Overactive adrenal response
Antibodies bind to TSH receptors, causing thyroid growth
Excess thyroid hormone production
Complete thyroid shutdown
What can a bird's eye view in a thyroid scan not show?
Bladder
Thyroid size
Thyroid nodules
Parathyroid glands
What is a disadvantage of using I-123 over 99mTC in thyroid scans?
More expensive and less available
Lower radiation exposure
Shorter half-life
Lower accuracy
What is a common indication for doing a thyroid uptake measurement?
Addison's disease
Pituitary dwarfism
Cushing's syndrome
Grave's disease
What is the purpose of the Co-57 marker in thyroid imaging?
Treatment
Quantification
Localization
Isolation
Where does a normal thyroid originate?
Above the heart
At the base of the tongue
Behind the sternum
In the chest
Which major hormone does the pituitary gland secrete to stimulate T3 and T4 synthesis?
TSH
FSH
ACTH
LH
Which patient prep is not necessary for a thyroid scan with I-123?
Fasting for 24 hours
Avoiding iodine-rich foods
(options not provided in text)
Discontinuing medications
Which of the following is not true concerning a thyroid uptake procedure using I-123?
The patient must refrain from caffeine for 24 hours
Standard counts must always be obtained
The pt's leg should hang straight down when taking pt's bkg
A cold nodule has a lesser chance of cancer
What is a functioning thyroid tissue in the thyroglossal duct remnant called?
Thyroid gland
Pyramidal lobe
Follicular unit
Isthmus
How much 99mTc Napertechnetate is administered orally for a thyroid scan?
15 mCi
10 mCi
20 mCi
5 mCi
Is it true that a cold thyroid nodule has a greater chance of being cancerous than a hot nodule?
False
Not applicable
Depends on the size
True
Does the procedure for a 24-hour thyroid uptake differ from a 6-hour uptake?
False
True
It varies based on medication
They are completely different
What solution blocks the thyroid from I-131?
Calcium solution
Lugol's solution
Potassium iodide
Sodium iodide
When should the first phase of imaging begin after a MIBI parathyroid study?
5-10 min
30-45 min
60 min
15-20 min
Which is an anti-thyroid drug that may need to be discontinued for a thyroid uptake test?
Levothyroxine
Propylthiouracil
Liothyronine
Methimazole
What is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis?
The trapping and secretion of iodine
Vitamin D synthesis
Iron metabolism
Calcium absorption
What are patients receiving a thyroid ablation dose of 75mCi of I-131 instructed to do?
Immediately discharged
Stay in the hospital indefinitely
Take a follow-up dose
Sent home with special instructions
Which imaging techniques can be used for thyroid imaging?
X-ray or ultrasound
Fluoroscopy only
CT or MRI
Pinhole or parallel
What effect does collecting thyroid counts 5 cm from the neck have?
The uptake value will falsely increase
It shows no influence
The uptake value will decrease
The value remains the same
Which glands in the neck can be visualized with thyroid imaging?
Thymus
Salivary glands
Pancreas
Adrenal glands
What does low circulating thyroid hormone trigger in the pituitary?
No change occurs
To decrease TSH production
To increase pituitary synthesis of TSH
To increase T3 synthesis
What patient prep is needed for a SPECT brain scan?
CT scan prior is mandatory
Water fasting required
There is no patient prep for a SPECT brain scan
Medication withholding necessary
What type of injection is required for a planar brain scan?
Continuous infusion
Subcutaneous injection
Intramuscular injection
Bolus injection
What radiopharmaceutical is used in a cisternogram?
750 uCi of I-123
1000 uCi of Tc-99m
500 uCi of In-111 DTPA
200 uCi of Ga-67
What is the hot nose sign associated with in brain imaging?
Increased flow in the external carotid circulation
Sinus blockage
Cerebellar dysfunction
Decreased brain activity
What happens to perfusion and metabolism in seizure foci during the ictal and interictal phases?
Remain constant
Decrease and increase
Increase and remain constant
Increase and decrease
Which statement is not true of SPECT brain procedures?
Injection timing does not affect outcomes
Patient consent is not required
The tech should explain the procedure as the injection is performed
SPECT is not used for brain imaging
What is one function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Protects the brain from shocks and delivers glucose to the brain
Provides oxygen to the brain
Supports blood circulation
Acts as a neurotransmitter
What is true about normal pressure hydrocephalus?
It has no effect on brain structure
It causes enlargement of a brain ventricle
It causes decreased ventricular size
It is unrelated to pressure changes
In a brain-dead patient, where can activity still be seen?
Jugular vein
Carotid artery
Pulmonary artery
Aorta
What type of radiopharmaceutical is 99mTc HMPAO?
Soluble in water
Only for bone imaging
Neutral lipid-soluble and crosses the BBB
Highly polar and does not cross the BBB
Should potassium perchlorate be given if Tc-99m HMPAO is used for brain flow scintigraphy?
Only in high doses
True
Only for elderly patients
False
What does flow look like in a cerebrovascular accident?
Shows asymmetry
No flow observed
Shows symmetry
Shows increased flow
What does intrathecal injection for CSF imaging allow for?
Dose to be administered into the subarachnoid space
Dose to be injected into muscle
Dose to be administered orally
Dose to enter the bloodstream
What should a tech prepare for an injection for a CSF shunt evaluation?
Injection into the brain
Injection into the spinal cord
Injection into the lumbar region
Injection into the shunt reservoir
What are the four main parts of the brain?
Frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital
Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, and brain stem
Brain stem, cerebellum, hippocampus, and amygdala
Cerebellum, medulla, thalamus, and cortex
How can you tell if a patient has had a stroke or a TIA?
The amount of time that the blood supply is reduced to the brain
Presence of slurred speech
An increase in blood glucose levels
A decrease in blood pressure
Why is a patient kept in a horizontal position for 2 hours after a cisternogram injection?
To minimize headache
To ensure proper imaging
To enhance drug absorption
To prevent nausea
Where should activity be seen in a normal cisternogram by 4 hours?
In the subarachnoid space
In the lateral ventricles
In the cerebral cortex
In the basal cisterns
What indicates brain death in SPECT imaging?
A pattern of no intracranial blood supply to the brain
Reduced glucose metabolism
Increased blood flow
Normal blood supply in specific regions
Cerebral glucose metabolism and blood flow during seizures are what?
Completely absent
Increased
Unchanged
Decreased
Which area is useful to detect infiltration of the osteo in the CSF procedure?
Lumbar spine
Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Lumbosacral junction
What is the typical scintigraphic pattern of Alzheimer's disease on cerebral perfusion imaging?
Uniform perfusion across all areas
Increased perfusion in the frontal lobe
Decreased perfusion in temporoparietal areas
No significant changes
What is a reason for using 111In-DTPA in a Cisternogram?
It is easier to inject
It has a desirable physical half-life for the test
It produces clearer images
It's less expensive
How long does it take for the radiotracer to clear from the basal cisterns?
72 hrs
24 hrs
48 hrs
12 hrs
In Alzheimer's disease, where does a symmetric decrease in perfusion occur?
Frontal lobe
Cerebellum
Occipital lobe
Temporal parietal lobes
Which of the following is true about Tl-201 brain imaging?
Tl-201 is effective for all tumors
Tl-201 accumulation is dependant on tumor grade
Tl-201 is not useful for CNS imaging
Tl-201 accumulation is minimal at sites of radiation necrosis
Tl-201 will not cross an intact BBB
Tl-201 can easily cross the BBB
How can CSF leaks be documented?
Activity detected in swabs placed in nose or ears
MRI results
Blood tests
CT scan images
Which part of the brain has the greatest blood flow seen on a NM brain scan?
White matter
Cerebellum
Brainstem
Grey matter
Which of the following are indications for a SPECT brain scan?
Evaluate cerebrovascular disease
Check for osteoporosis
Assess lung function
Evaluate for seizures foci
Evaluate kidney stones
Evaluate dementia
What does a CNS 111In-DTPA study assess?
Tumor size
Cerebral spinal flow dynamics
Cerebrospinal fluid pressure
Blood flow
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is used for ictal SECT imaging?
99mTC-DTPA
Tl-201
99mTc-RBC
99mTc-HMPAO
True or False: The blood-brain barrier protects the brain from potentially toxic substances.
False
True
When performing Dual isotope myocardial perfusion imaging, should the stress be performed first?
False
True
What is the correct order of a normal heart conduction system?
AV, SA, bundle branches, Bundle of HIS
Bundle branches, AV, SA, Bundle of HIS
Bundle of HIS, SA, AV, bundle branches
SA, AV, Bundle of HIS, bundle branches
What is the cause of reduced uptake on the post-stress images with fill in on delayed images?
Myocardial ischemia
Heart failure
Valvular disease
Cardiac arrest
Which RP causes more prominent attenuation artifacts in a myocardial perfusion stress test?
99mTc-DTPA
99mTc-HMPAO
Tl-201
99mTc-RBC
When performing equilibrium gated blood pool studies, when is the first frame of data recorded?
P wave
T wave
S wave
R wave
What does transient dilation of the left ventricle on an exercise stress image signify?
Left ventricular dysfunction
Decreased blood flow
Increased cardiac efficiency
Normal ventricular function
Why is the modified protocol for myocardial stress imaging important?
It provides more detailed images
It will take longer for the patient to achieve the necessary heart rate
It is less invasive
It uses a higher dose of contrast
How are 99m Tc labeled RBCs prepared?
By direct injection
In vivo
In vitro
Using a thermal procedure
How many frames per cycle does a gated myocardial perfusion stress test use?
4 frames
8 frames
6 frames
12 frames
Which radiopharmaceutical could be used for an infarct avid study?
99mTc-PYP
99mTc-Sestamibi
99mTc-MIBI
201Tl
Which radiopharmaceutical is not used for myocardial perfusion imaging?
99mTc-Tetrofosmin
201Tl
99mTc-MIBI
99mPYP
How long should a patient having a Dipyridamole stress test avoid caffeine?
24 hours
6 hours
48 hours
12 hours
Which radiopharmaceutical would localize more in the myocardium?
99m Tc-MIBI
99mTc-PYP
99mTc-Sestamibi
201-Tl
What are the primary functions of the blood?
Digestion, respiration
Excretion, filtration
Transportation, regulation
Protection, absorption
What is a common characteristic of anemia?
Decreased platelet count
Higher than normal white blood cells
Higher than normal hemoglobin
Lower than normal number of RBCs
Which condition indicates high blood pressure caused by the kidneys?
Malignant hypertension
Hypertensive crisis
Secondary hypertension
Primary hypertension
What does vasodilator refer to?
Reduce blood flow
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
Stabilize blood pressure
What is Warfarin classified as?
A vasodilator
A thrombolytic agent
A blood pressure medication
An anticoagulant that is slower acting than heparin
What does hemophilia indicate?
Deficiency of coagulation
Excessive clotting
High white blood cell count
Low platelet count
What characterizes primary hypertension?
High BP due to kidney issues
High BP with known causes
High BP due to medication
Higher BP with no identifiable cause
What does vasoconstriction refer to?
Decrease the lumen of the blood vessel
Increase the lumen of the blood vessel
Open the blood vessel
Thicken the blood vessel wall
What is the purpose of exercise for 1-2 minutes post-injection of the RP?
Circulate and localize the tracer on the myocardium
Reduce injection pain
Shorten imaging time
Enhance tracer stability
Which is a disadvantage of using 201Tl for myocardial perfusion stress tests?
Lower energy creates attenuation
Reduced accuracy
High cost
Short half life
Lower doses do not permit gating
Long effective half life
What is the flow of deoxygenated blood from the heart?
Sup/inf vena cava to right atria to right ventricle to pulmonary artery
Left atria to left ventricle to pulmonary artery
Right atria to right ventricle to aorta
Pulmonary vein to left ventricle to aorta
What types of artifacts may occur during imaging?
Attenuation and motion
Clarity and color
Resolution and focus
Brightness and depth
When does clearance or redistribution of thallium occur?
After 2 hours
Over the course of about 4 hours post injection
Immediately after injection
After 6 hours
What does MUGA stand for?
Multiple graded assessment
Multi gated acquisition
Magnetic ultrasound gated assessment
Myocardial gated analysis
In which wall of the heart is there a large myocardial infarction in the short axis view?
Anterior
Inferior
Septal
Lateral
What effect does 80% stenosis in a coronary artery have on blood flow at rest?
Increased blood flow
Normal blood flow
No effect
Decreased blood flow
Which radiopharmaceutical (RP) is preferred for ischemia and why?
201Tl has a higher sensitivity
99mTc has a longer half-life
99mTc has higher specificity
201Tl is less expensive
What agent is most likely used for pharmacological myocardial stress testing in bronchospastic patients?
Regadenoson
Dobutamine
Adenosine
Dipyridamole
Why do males have more red blood cells (RBCs)?
Fewer fluid levels
More testosterone
More physical activity
Higher oxygen levels
What is the best view for separating the ventricles to calculate ejection fraction in a MUGA?
Left lateral view
Anterior view
45 degree LAO
Posteroanterior view
In a 2-day protocol for a 99mTc-sestamibi myocardial perfusion stress test, what is the dose range for both days?
30-40 mCi
50-60 mCi
40-50 mCi
20-30 mCi
Which parameter is not assessed from a first-pass ventriculography?
Ejection fraction
Myocardial perfusion
Cardiac output
Heart rate
What is the expected motion for the inferior wall in a long-axis heart image?
Dyskinetic
Normal
Hypokinetic
Akinetic
Why must a 201-Tl stress test not be imaged within 10 minutes or after 20 minutes?
To avoid radiation exposure
For optimal imaging angle
Due to cardiac creep and redistribution
To prevent patient fatigue
What type of display is used to present myocardial perfusion data?
Line graph
Bull's eye display
Scatter plot
3D imaging
What does it indicate if a 65-year-old male reaches a max heart rate of 140 during a stress test?
He has normal function
He has ischemia in his wall
He has tachycardia
He is healthy
In cardiac SPECT imaging, the transverse slices are reoriented along which axis?
Short axis of the left ventricle
Long axis of the left ventricle
Coronary arteries
Right atrium
When injecting the RP during a myocardial perfusion stress test, when should it ideally be injected?
At rest
Post-exercise
Peak stress
Before exercise
What is the quantitative presentation of myocardial uptake and washout known as?
Bulls-eye
Slice view
Cardiac map
Heart profile
Which of the following is not a contraindication for adenosine?
Hypotension
Asthma
Eating within 24 hr
Heart block
How does a RBC diffuse into the cell if it is 8um in diameter with a 5um membrane?
Heavy and round
Rigid and flat
They are flexible and concave
Large and spherical
What is the target heart rate for a 50-year-old male during a myocardial perfusion stress test?
130
144
120
160
How does filtering prevent arrhythmias during a MUGA scan?
Ensures at least 6 cardiac cycles without arrhythmias
Normalizes blood pressure
Limits heart rate variability
Increases cardiac output
When should SPECT imaging begin after high-level stress exercise?
Before resting
Immediately after exercise
After 10 minutes
When respiration has returned to normal
What does Dipyridamole allow the heart to achieve during stress testing?
100% of its max HR
85% of its max HR
75% of its max HR
60% of its max HR
What does a grade of 0 indicate in an infarct avid study?
Normal myocardium with no myocardial infarctions
Severe myocardial infarction
Unknown myocardial condition
Mild myocardial injury
Which of the following is NOT an indication for liver/spleen imaging?
Ascites
Cirrhosis
Bile stones in the liver
Liver tumors
What is a common cause of a GI bleed in children?
Gastric ulcers
Meckel diverticulum
Food allergies
Inflammatory bowel disease
In a Hepatobiliary scan, where should the liver be positioned in relation to your imaging screen?
Upper right corner
Upper left corner
Lower right corner
Center
What are two derivatives of 99mTc IDA?
Choletec and Mebro
Bile and Gastrin
Thyroid and Gallium
HIDA and SPECT
For a patient with xerostomia, which procedure should the tech prepare the room for?
CT scan
Ultrasound
MRI
Sialography
Which of the following is NOT an action of saliva?
Facilitates taste
Cleanses mouth
Aids in digestion
Dissolves gastric juices
What are the actions of saliva?
Absorbs nutrients
Lubricates food, dissolves food, initiates chemical breakdown
Evaluates esophageal transit
Contracts sphincter of Oddi
Why is the head tilted backward during salivary gland imaging?
To prevent thyroid superimposition over the salivary glands
To increase saliva production
To enhance visual clarity
To align with the esophagus
What can esophageal imaging evaluate?
Liver function
Nutrient absorption
Gallbladder visualization
Movement of foods through the esophagus
What is visualized in the first hour of a normal hepatobiliary scan?
Common duct, gallbladder, duodenum
Spleen, small intestine, liver
Thyroid gland, pancreas, ileum
Esophagus, stomach, colon
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
Protein metabolism
Absorption of nutrients
Regulating blood sugar
Phagocytosis
At what size will solids remain in the stomach without being secreted into the intestines?
1mm
10mm
5mm
3mm
What does nonvisualization of the gallbladder in cholescintigraphy indicate?
Chronic gastritis
Liver cirrhosis
Acute cholecystitis
Esophageal rupture
Are decay and attenuation corrections used for gastric emptying half time calculations?
False
Only during advanced scans
Only in pediatric patients
True
What should be included in the field of view during a gastrointestinal bleed study?
Liver only
Only the small intestine
Small margins of liver and spleen
Only the stomach
What is the purpose of administering morphine sulfate in imaging?
Contract the sphincter of Oddi
Enhance gallbladder visibility
Increase saliva production
Relax the diaphragm
What is the purpose of salivary gland imaging?
Blood flow analysis
Size, location, and function
Tumor detection
Nutrient absorption
Where does most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur?
Stomach
Large intestines
Pancreas
Small intestines
Should a Meckels Diverticulum study get more activity than a GI bleed scan?
False
Only in children
It depends
True
When should imaging begin for a 99mTc SC technique for identifying a gastrointestinal bleed?
Immediately after injection
With an anterior flow study for 2-3 min and static every 1 to 2 min for 20-30 min thereafter
Only during static imaging
After a 1 hr waiting period
What is the alimentary canal also known as?
Epidermis
Digestive system
GI tract
Cardiovascular system
What cells compose the liver?
B cells, T cells, and macrophages
Adipocytes and fibroblasts
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Kupffer cells, phagocytic cells, and hepatocytes
Why is the Tc-99m labeled RBC technique preferred for imaging gastrointestinal bleeds?
For intermittent bleeds
For constant bleeds
For detecting tumors
For liver function tests
What will the flow study demonstrate in a liver/spleen scan?
Tumor presence
Fluid accumulation
Vascularity defect
Solid organ size
What is the appropriate volume of solution for RN imaging for gastroesophageal reflux?
200ml of orange juice only
300ml (150 ml of orange juice and 150ml of acid)
400ml total
150ml total
What are stones in the gallbladder that may or may not cause symptoms called?
Cholecystitis
Gallbladder disease
Choledocholithiasis
Cholelithiasis
Should a 1 hr fasting be avoided in a cholescintigraphy study?
Depends on medication
True
Only in children
False
Which of the following is not an activity of the digestive system?
Digestion
Absorption
Secretion
Urination
What condition occurs when the esophageal sphincter fails to relax after food is eaten?
Acid reflux
Dysphagia
Gastroesophageal reflux
Achalasia
What does the stomach secrete?
Amylase and lipase
Bile and enzymes
Saliva and insulin
Mucus and hydrochloric acid
Where is the gallbladder located?
Inferior to the pancreas
Posterior to the stomach
Medial to the spleen
Visceral to the liver
What is the term for saclike outpouching of the wall of the colon?
Meckel's diverticulum
Diverticulosis
Herniation
Appendicitis
Chronic cholecystitis will cause the gallbladder to visualize at what time?
90 minutes
120 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes
Which anatomical region of the stomach controls the emptying rate for liquids?
Fundus
Body
Pylorus
Cardia
What is demonstrated by a marker image taken for a liver/spleen scan?
Shape
Tissue type
Size
Blood flow
Cholecystokinin is a hormone secreted by the duodenum that stimulates which action?
Bile secretion
Insulin secretion
Gallbladder contraction
Stomach acid production
What is the most common cause of chronic gastroparesis?
Hyperthyroidism
Cholecystitis
Diabetes
Cirrhosis
In preparation for an esophageal transit study, how much 99mTC SC is prepared?
500 uci
300 uci
200 uci
100 uci
What effect does CCK have on the gallbladder and the sphincter of Oddi?
Relaxes; contracts
Contracts; contracts
Contracts; relaxes
Relaxes; relaxes
What is the main determinant of the rate of liquid gastric emptying?
Temperature
Caloric content
Viscosity of contents
pH level
What indicates a split renal function of 43% and 57% during a captopril renal scan?
Equivalent function
Normal
Abnormal
Insufficient data
When assessing relative renal function, what is useful for imaging?
30 min image
1-2 min image
15 min image
5 min image
In a renal scan, if the right kidney is slightly lower than the left, what should the technician do?
Stop the scan
Alter the patient position
Repeat the scan
Continue the scan; this is normal
Which phase of the time activity curve shows the peak transit time?
Preparatory
Filtration
Excretory
Secretory
What does a diuretic renal imaging study help differentiate?
Renal failure from normal function
Tumors from cysts
Dilation from obstructed renal collecting system
Infections from stones
ACE augments renal studies in patients with what condition?
Chronic kidney disease
Heart failure
Diabetes
RAS related hypertension
Which agents are commonly used for morphologic renal imaging?
MAG3 and DTPA
MAG3 and ultrasound
DTPA and creatinine
DMSA and GH
Is the split renal function measured using GFR and ERPF advantageous over BUN and creatinine?
Sometimes
True
False
Not always
What are the examples of functions of the nephrons?
Water balance
None
Aldosterone
Glucose reabsorption
Which conditions are indicators for renal scintigraphy?
Acute asthma
Chronic renal failure
Liver disease
Heart failure
What is the most accurate nuclear medicine technique for measuring renal size?
Ultrasound
Nuclear imaging technique
CT Scan
X-Ray
What is a characteristic of the morphologic renal tracer DMSA?
Retention in the renal parenchyma for a prolonged period of time
Low sensitivity for renal function
Only used in emergency cases
Rapid elimination from the body
What radioactive pharmaceutical (RP) was likely used in renal perfusion imaging?
Technecium-99m
Mag3
DMSA
I-131 mIBG
What should a patient receiving I-131 mIBG for pheochromocytoma also receive?
Lugol's solution
Water
Vitamin B12
Captopril
What substance is produced as a result of protein catabolism?
Creatinine
Glucose
Urea, ammonia, and NH3
Lactate
What is a cytogram also referred to as?
Kidney scan
CT Urogram
Urine culture
Vesicouretal reflux study
What must be done if the patient arrives late for a renal imaging study?
Wait for the patient to arrive in 1 hour
Use the same kit for 24 hours
A new kit has to be made
Proceed with the original kit
What is a primary effect of Angiotensin II in the body?
Lower GFR, decrease blood volume, and decrease blood pressure
Raise GFR and decrease blood pressure
Raise GFR, increase blood volume, and increase blood pressure
Increase GFR, decrease blood volume, and increase blood pressure
What medication is also known as furosemide?
ACE inhibitor
Potassium-sparing diuretic
Loop diuretic
Thiazide diuretic
Are you sure you want to delete 0 flashcard(s)? This cannot be undone.
Select tags to remove from 0 selected flashcard(s):
Loading tags...